ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client is starting therapy with Metformin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with your first bite of food.
- B. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- C. Take this medication before bedtime.
- D. Take this medication every other day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Metformin should be taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects and ensure better absorption. Instructing the client to take the medication with the first bite of food helps in achieving optimal effectiveness and minimizes the risk of side effects like nausea or upset stomach. Choice B is incorrect because taking Metformin on an empty stomach can lead to increased gastrointestinal side effects. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific timing requirement for taking Metformin before bedtime. Choice D is incorrect as Metformin is usually taken daily, not every other day.
2. A client has a new prescription for Fluoxetine for PTS. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You may have a decreased desire for intimacy while taking this medication.
- B. You should take this medication at bedtime to help promote sleep.
- C. You will have fewer urinary adverse effects if you urinate just before taking this medication.
- D. You'll need to wear sunglasses when outdoors due to the light sensitivity caused by this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to include in the teaching is 'You may have a decreased desire for intimacy while taking this medication.' One of the potential adverse effects of fluoxetine and other SSRIs is a decreased desire for intimacy. It is essential for the nurse to educate the client about this possible side effect to enhance understanding and promote informed decision-making. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not relate to common side effects of Fluoxetine that the nurse should include in the teaching.
3. Which of the following is classified as a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?
- A. Quinidine
- B. Disopyramide
- C. Aminodarone
- D. Propafenone
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Quinidine is classified as a class IA sodium channel blocker. Class IA antiarrhythmics, like quinidine, work by blocking sodium channels and delaying repolarization. Propafenone, mentioned in the original rationale, is actually a class IC antiarrhythmic agent, not a class IA sodium channel blocker.
4. When caring for a school-age child with a new prescription for Atomoxetine, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Kidney toxicity
- B. Liver damage
- C. Seizure activity
- D. Adrenal insufficiency
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Liver damage. Atomoxetine can lead to liver damage as an adverse effect. Symptoms of liver damage include jaundice, upper abdominal tenderness, dark urine, and elevated liver enzymes. Monitoring for these signs is crucial when a child is on this medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Atomoxetine is not known to cause kidney toxicity, seizure activity, or adrenal insufficiency as primary adverse effects.
5. A client has a new prescription for Propranolol. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider identify as a contraindication to this medication?
- A. Asthma
- B. Diabetes mellitus
- C. Hypertension
- D. Glaucoma
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction, making it contraindicated for clients with asthma. Asthma is a contraindication for Propranolol due to the potential of worsening bronchoconstriction and causing respiratory distress in individuals with this condition. Diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and glaucoma are not contraindications for Propranolol.
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