Nursing Elites

1. A client is starting therapy with Metformin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with your first bite of food.
• B. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Take this medication before bedtime.
• D. Take this medication every other day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metformin should be taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects and ensure better absorption. Instructing the client to take the medication with the first bite of food helps in achieving optimal effectiveness and minimizes the risk of side effects like nausea or upset stomach. Choice B is incorrect because taking Metformin on an empty stomach can lead to increased gastrointestinal side effects. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific timing requirement for taking Metformin before bedtime. Choice D is incorrect as Metformin is usually taken daily, not every other day.

2. A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about Terbutaline. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. This medication will stop my contractions.
• B. This medication will prevent vaginal bleeding.
• C. This medication will promote blood flow to my baby.
• D. This medication will increase my prostaglandin production.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Terbutaline works by blocking beta2-adrenergic receptors, leading to uterine smooth muscle relaxation and stopping contractions. It is commonly used to delay preterm labor. Choice B is incorrect because Terbutaline is not used to prevent vaginal bleeding. Choice C is incorrect because Terbutaline's primary action is not related to promoting blood flow to the baby. Choice D is incorrect because Terbutaline does not increase prostaglandin production; instead, it works by blocking beta2-adrenergic receptors.

3. A healthcare professional is caring for an older adult client who has a new prescription for Digoxin and takes multiple other medications. Which of the following medications, when used concurrently with Digoxin, places the client at risk for Digoxin toxicity?

• A. Phenytoin
• B. Verapamil
• C. Warfarin
• D. Aluminum hydroxide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium-channel blocker, can increase digoxin levels, leading to Digoxin toxicity. When these medications are used together, the client is at an increased risk. Phenytoin (Choice A) does not significantly impact digoxin levels. Warfarin (Choice C) and aluminum hydroxide (Choice D) do not directly increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the correct choice is Verapamil (Choice B) due to its potential to raise digoxin levels and cause toxicity.

4. A client has a new prescription for Sucralfate to treat a duodenal ulcer. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take the medication with meals.
• B. Swallow the tablet whole.
• C. Take the medication 1 hour before meals.
• D. Chew the tablet before swallowing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for taking Sucralfate is to take it 1 hour before meals. This timing allows the medication to coat the stomach lining, providing a protective barrier against stomach acid, which aids in healing the duodenal ulcer. Option A is incorrect as it contradicts the correct timing for taking Sucralfate. Option B is not necessary as it does not pertain to how the medication should be taken in relation to meals. Option D is incorrect as chewing the tablet before swallowing is not the correct administration method for Sucralfate.

5. Which of the following is the antidote for lead poisoning?

• A. Naloxone
• B. Nitrite
• C. CaEDTA
• D. Dialysis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Calcium disodium ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (CaEDTA) is the antidote for lead poisoning. CaEDTA works by chelating lead, forming a complex that is then excreted in the urine. It is used in chelation therapy to treat lead poisoning by reducing lead levels in the body.

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