a nurse is providing teaching to a client who is starting therapy with metformin which of the following instructions should the nurse include
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client is starting therapy with Metformin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metformin should be taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects and ensure better absorption. Instructing the client to take the medication with the first bite of food helps in achieving optimal effectiveness and minimizes the risk of side effects like nausea or upset stomach. Choice B is incorrect because taking Metformin on an empty stomach can lead to increased gastrointestinal side effects. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific timing requirement for taking Metformin before bedtime. Choice D is incorrect as Metformin is usually taken daily, not every other day.

2. A client has been taking Sertraline for the past 2 days. Which of the following assessment findings should alert the nurse to the possibility that the client is developing Serotonin syndrome?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fever is a key symptom of serotonin syndrome, a potentially serious condition that can occur with the use of SSRIs like Sertraline. Serotonin syndrome is characterized by excessive levels of serotonin in the body, leading to symptoms such as fever, agitation, confusion, tremors, and sweating. If a client on Sertraline presents with fever, the nurse should consider the possibility of serotonin syndrome and take appropriate actions such as notifying the healthcare provider and monitoring the client closely. Bruising, abdominal pain, and rash are not typically associated with serotonin syndrome and are more likely to be indicative of other conditions or side effects.

3. A client is prescribed Diltiazem. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can cause bradycardia as an adverse effect due to its negative chronotropic properties, slowing down the heart rate. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bradycardia by regularly assessing the heart rate to prevent potential complications. Monitoring for tachycardia (choice A) is incorrect as diltiazem typically does not cause tachycardia. Hypertension (choice C) is not a typical finding to monitor for with diltiazem use. Hyperkalemia (choice D) is not directly associated with diltiazem administration.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV Vancomycin to a client who has a systemic infection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the healthcare professional is to monitor the client for Red Man Syndrome. Red Man Syndrome is a common adverse reaction to Vancomycin characterized by flushing, rash, and hypotension. It is important to monitor the client for these symptoms to intervene promptly if they occur.

5. A client in labor is receiving IV Opioid analgesics. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Offering oral hygiene every 2 hours is essential for a client receiving opioid analgesics to prevent dry mouth, nausea, and vomiting, which are common adverse effects associated with opioid use. This intervention promotes comfort and enhances the client's well-being during labor. Instructing the client to self-ambulate every 2 hours is not appropriate for a client in labor receiving opioid analgesics, as it may be challenging and unnecessary during this time. Anticipating medication administration 2 hours prior to delivery is not necessary as the timing of medication administration should be based on the client's pain level and the duration of action of the opioid. Monitoring fetal heart rate every 2 hours is important during labor, but the priority in this case is to address the client's comfort and well-being by offering oral hygiene.

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