ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client has been prescribed Phenelzine for depression. Which of the following indicates that the client has developed an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Orthostatic hypotension
- B. Hearing loss
- C. Gastrointestinal bleeding
- D. Weight loss
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Orthostatic hypotension is a known adverse effect of Phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) used for depression. It is caused by a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions, leading to symptoms like dizziness or fainting. Monitoring for orthostatic hypotension is crucial during Phenelzine therapy to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hearing loss, gastrointestinal bleeding, and weight loss are not typically associated with Phenelzine use.
2. A client is prescribed Amlodipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Peripheral edema
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker known to cause peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for swelling, particularly in the lower extremities, as it can indicate the development of this side effect. Choice A, Tachycardia, is not a common adverse effect of Amlodipine. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is not typically associated with Amlodipine use. Choice D, Hypertension, is the condition Amlodipine is prescribed to treat, not an adverse effect of the medication.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The available furosemide oral solution is 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?
- A. 8 mL
- B. 10 mL
- C. 6 mL
- D. 12 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To determine the volume to administer, divide the desired dose by the available concentration. In this case, 80 mg divided by 10 mg/mL equals 8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 8 mL of furosemide oral solution. Choice B, 10 mL, is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate calculation. Choices C and D, 6 mL and 12 mL respectively, are also incorrect as they do not match the correct calculation based on the provided concentration and dose.
4. A client has a new prescription for Amlodipine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?
- A. Take the medication at bedtime.
- B. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
- C. Increase your intake of high-sodium foods.
- D. Expect a dry cough.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include during discharge teaching is to advise the client to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, leading to increased drug levels in the blood. This can result in potentiated side effects and potential toxicity. Option A is incorrect as amlodipine is usually taken once daily, not specifically at bedtime. Option C is incorrect because high-sodium foods are generally discouraged in individuals with hypertension. Option D is incorrect as a dry cough is not an expected side effect of amlodipine.
5. Which of the following conditions are not treated with opioid analgesics like dextromethorphan and methadone?
- A. Pulmonary Edema
- B. Cough suppression
- C. Sedation
- D. Pain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Opioid analgesics like dextromethorphan and methadone are primarily used for pain management and cough suppression. Sedation is not a primary indication for these medications.
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