ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the healthcare provider monitor?
- A. Urinary retention
- B. Tachypnea
- C. Hypertension
- D. Irritating cough
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the sensation of a full bladder, leading to urinary retention. Monitoring for this complication is crucial to prevent bladder distention and related issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and irritating cough are not typically associated with opioid agonist administration for pain management.
2. A nurse is reviewing the medication administration record for a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery. The nurse should recognize that which of the following medications places the client at risk for wound dehiscence?
- A. Omeprazole
- B. Zolmitriptan
- C. Prednisone
- D. Verapamil
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can impair wound healing and increase the risk of wound dehiscence. Omeprazole (Choice A) is a proton pump inhibitor used to reduce stomach acid production and does not directly impact wound healing. Zolmitriptan (Choice B) is a medication used to treat migraines and does not affect wound healing. Verapamil (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used to treat high blood pressure and certain heart conditions, and it does not pose a significant risk for wound dehiscence.
3. Which food item should be recommended to prevent choking in toddlers?
- A. Banana slices
- B. Popcorn
- C. Hot dogs
- D. Carrot sticks
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Banana slices are less likely to cause choking compared to other options.
4. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving warfarin therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. INR 1.8
- B. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
- C. Platelets 175,000/mm³
- D. Potassium 3.8 mEq/L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. An INR of 1.8 is below the therapeutic range for a client receiving warfarin, indicating a potential risk of blood clots. This value should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and possible adjustment of the warfarin dosage. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly relate to the effectiveness or safety of warfarin therapy in this scenario, making them less urgent to report.
5. A nurse is preparing to perform postmortem care for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Place the client's dentures in a labeled container
- B. Remove the client's IV lines
- C. Place the client's body in a semi-fowler's position
- D. Lower the client's head of the bed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to perform postmortem care is to remove the client's IV lines. This step is essential to help maintain the dignity and appearance of the body. Placing the client's dentures in a labeled container (Choice A) is not a priority during postmortem care as the focus is on the body's preparation. While positioning the body in a semi-fowler's position (Choice C) or lowering the client's head of the bed (Choice D) are common practices for living clients to prevent aspiration, they are not necessary after death. Therefore, the immediate action of removing IV lines is most appropriate in this situation.
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