ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
- A. Canned soup
- B. Bananas
- C. White bread
- D. Processed meats
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: White bread. White bread is low in potassium, making it a suitable choice for clients with chronic kidney disease to prevent hyperkalemia. Canned soup (choice A), bananas (choice B), and processed meats (choice D) are high in potassium and should be limited or avoided by individuals with chronic kidney disease to manage their condition effectively.
2. A nurse enters a client's room and finds her on the floor. The client's roommate reports that the client was trying to get out of bed and fell over the bedrail onto the floor. Which of the following statements should the nurse document about this incident?
- A. Found on floor
- B. Client slipped while getting out of bed
- C. Patient fell while attempting to get out of bed
- D. Roommate reported fall
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'A: Found on floor.' This choice provides a clear and objective account of the situation without adding interpretation or assumptions. It is crucial to document only the facts observed directly. Choices B and C introduce speculation by suggesting how the incident happened, which the nurse did not witness. Choice D is not directly related to the nurse’s observation and should not be documented as the primary incident.
3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being assessed by a nurse. Which finding does the nurse expect?
- A. Increased anteroposterior (AP) chest diameter
- B. Decreased respiratory rate
- C. Weight gain
- D. Productive cough with yellow sputum
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clients with COPD commonly develop a barrel chest, characterized by an increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest. This change is due to chronic air trapping and hyperinflation of the lungs. A decreased respiratory rate, weight gain, and productive cough with yellow sputum are not typical findings in COPD. Instead, COPD patients often present with an increased respiratory rate, weight loss, and a chronic cough with sputum production.
4. A patient in the emergency department reports taking sildenafil (Viagra) and nitroglycerin 1 hr before sexual activity. Which finding should the nurse immediately report to the physician?
- A. WBC of 3200 cells/mm³
- B. RR of 26 breaths/min
- C. Temp of 38°C
- D. BP of 70/50
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: BP of 70/50. When sildenafil (Viagra) is taken with nitroglycerin, it can cause severe hypotension that is unresponsive to treatment. The combination of these medications can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. It is crucial to immediately report hypotension in this scenario as it poses a significant risk to the patient's life. It is recommended to allow at least 24 hours to elapse between the last dose of sildenafil and nitroglycerin to prevent such adverse effects. The other vital signs and lab values may be abnormal but do not have the immediate life-threatening implications that severe hypotension does in this context.
5. A client with atrial fibrillation is at risk for which of the following complications?
- A. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
- B. Pulmonary embolism
- C. Hypertensive crisis
- D. Myocardial infarction
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A client with atrial fibrillation is at increased risk of thromboembolism due to blood stasis in the atria. This can lead to the formation of blood clots, which may travel to the lungs and cause a pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is a serious complication of atrial fibrillation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while atrial fibrillation can lead to complications such as stroke or heart failure, it is specifically associated with an increased risk of pulmonary embolism due to the clot formation associated with the condition.
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