Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

• A. Canned soup
• B. Bananas
• C. White bread
• D. Processed meats

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: White bread. White bread is low in potassium, making it a suitable choice for clients with chronic kidney disease to prevent hyperkalemia. Canned soup (choice A), bananas (choice B), and processed meats (choice D) are high in potassium and should be limited or avoided by individuals with chronic kidney disease to manage their condition effectively.

2. A healthcare provider is performing a skin assessment for a client and observes several skin lesions. Which of the following findings is a priority to report to the provider?

• A. Raised nevus
• B. Macule
• C. Vesicle
• D. Irregularly shaped mole

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An irregularly shaped mole is a priority finding to report to the provider as it can be indicative of melanoma, a type of skin cancer. Melanoma is a serious condition that requires prompt evaluation and treatment. Raised nevus, macule, and vesicle are common skin findings that are typically benign and may not require immediate attention. Therefore, the irregularly shaped mole stands out as the priority due to its association with potential malignancy.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Request a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours.
• B. Check the client's peripheral pulse every 30 minutes.
• C. Obtain a prescription for restraints within 4 hours.
• D. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario presented, the correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with a verbal prescription for restraints due to acute mania is to document the client's condition every 15 minutes. Documenting at regular intervals is essential to monitor the client's well-being, assess the effects of the restraints, and ensure the client's safety. Requesting a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours (Choice A) is not necessary as the focus should be on monitoring the client's condition. Checking the client's peripheral pulse every 30 minutes (Choice B) is important but not as crucial as documenting the overall condition. Obtaining a prescription for restraints within 4 hours (Choice C) is not the immediate action needed when a verbal prescription is already obtained.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing a panic attack. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Hypotension.
• C. Chest pain.
• D. Dilated pupils.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a panic attack, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, leading to physiological responses such as dilated pupils. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure) are not typically associated with panic attacks. While chest pain can occur during a panic attack due to rapid breathing and muscle tension, dilated pupils are a more specific finding related to sympathetic activation in this context.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Productive cough with green sputum
• B. Temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F)
• C. Crackles in the lung bases
• D. Oxygen saturation of 95%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with pneumonia, crackles in the lung bases can indicate fluid accumulation, worsening of the condition, or development of complications such as pulmonary edema. This finding should be reported to the provider promptly for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are common in clients with pneumonia and may not necessarily require immediate reporting unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms or vital sign abnormalities.

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