Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

• A. Canned soup
• B. Bananas
• C. White bread
• D. Processed meats

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: White bread. White bread is low in potassium, making it a suitable choice for clients with chronic kidney disease to prevent hyperkalemia. Canned soup (choice A), bananas (choice B), and processed meats (choice D) are high in potassium and should be limited or avoided by individuals with chronic kidney disease to manage their condition effectively.

2. A client in her second trimester of pregnancy is being taught by a nurse about managing nausea and vomiting. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. ''I will drink a glass of orange juice before I get out of bed.''
• B. ''I will eat small, frequent meals throughout the day.''
• C. ''I will take 1 g of acetaminophen every 6 hours.''
• D. ''I will avoid foods that have a strong odor.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Eating small, frequent meals is a recommended strategy to manage nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. This approach helps prevent an empty stomach, which can worsen symptoms. Option A is not as effective as eating small, frequent meals. Option C is unrelated to managing nausea and vomiting, and acetaminophen should only be taken as directed by a healthcare provider. Option D may help reduce nausea in some cases, but the most appropriate response related to managing symptoms is to eat small, frequent meals.

3. Which diagnostic test is used to confirm tuberculosis (TB) infection?

• A. Chest X-ray
• B. Sputum culture
• C. Skin test (Mantoux)
• D. MRI

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Mantoux skin test, also known as the Tuberculin Skin Test (TST), is used to confirm tuberculosis (TB) infection. This test involves injecting a small amount of tuberculin protein derivative under the top layer of the skin and then evaluating the immune system's response to the protein. A positive reaction indicates exposure to the TB bacteria. Chest X-rays are used to detect abnormalities in the lungs caused by TB but are not confirmatory. Sputum culture is used to identify the presence of TB bacteria in the sputum. MRIs are not typically used as a primary diagnostic tool for TB.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Lorazepam
• B. Atenolol
• C. Naltrexone
• D. Methadone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lorazepam is the correct choice for managing acute alcohol withdrawal symptoms due to its effectiveness in controlling agitation and tremors associated with this condition. Atenolol (Choice B) is a beta-blocker mainly used for hypertension and angina, not for alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Naltrexone (Choice C) is used for alcohol dependence treatment by reducing cravings and the rewarding effects of alcohol, but it is not typically used in acute withdrawal situations. Methadone (Choice D) is an opioid agonist mainly used for opioid detoxification and maintenance therapy, not for alcohol withdrawal.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Serum sodium.
• B. Serum glucose.
• C. Serum potassium.
• D. Serum calcium.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, meaning it can lead to potassium loss in the body. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of furosemide and prevent hypokalemia. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not directly affect sodium, glucose, or calcium levels in the same way it impacts potassium levels.

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