ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has diabetes insipidus. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Polyuria
- C. Hypertension
- D. Weight loss
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Polyuria is the correct answer. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the inability to concentrate urine, leading to excessive urination (polyuria) and thirst. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus. While dehydration from the excessive urination can lead to hypotension rather than hypertension, and weight loss can occur due to fluid loss, the most specific and significant finding expected in diabetes insipidus is polyuria.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has generalized petechiae and ecchymoses. The nurse should expect a prescription for which of the following laboratory tests?
- A. Platelet count
- B. Potassium level
- C. Creatinine clearance
- D. Prealbumin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count. Platelet count helps assess clotting abnormalities that could cause petechiae and ecchymoses. Petechiae and ecchymoses are often associated with bleeding disorders, so it is crucial to evaluate the platelet count to determine if there is a deficiency in platelets. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because potassium level, creatinine clearance, and prealbumin do not directly relate to assessing clotting abnormalities associated with petechiae and ecchymoses.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 hour postoperative following a hysterectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 78/min.
- B. Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg.
- C. Oxygen saturation of 94%.
- D. Respiratory rate of 16/min.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A heart rate of 78/min is within the normal range; however, postoperative patients require close monitoring for any signs of complications. While the heart rate is normal, other critical findings such as increased pain, excessive bleeding, or other concerning symptoms may need immediate attention. Choices B, C, and D all indicate normal postoperative vital signs and oxygen saturation levels, which do not raise immediate concerns requiring reporting to the provider.
4. When providing teaching for a child prescribed ferrous sulfate, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take with meals
- B. Take at bedtime
- C. Take with a glass of milk
- D. Take with a glass of orange juice
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Take with a glass of orange juice.' Ferrous sulfate is best absorbed with vitamin C, making orange juice the preferred choice. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because taking ferrous sulfate with meals, at bedtime, or with milk can reduce its absorption due to interactions with food components like calcium, inhibiting the iron absorption process.
5. What is the best initial nursing intervention for a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Administer anticoagulants
- C. Reposition the patient
- D. Check oxygen saturation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the best initial nursing intervention for a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism because it helps address hypoxia, a common complication of this condition. Oxygen therapy can improve oxygenation and support vital organ function. Administering anticoagulants (Choice B) is a treatment option for confirmed pulmonary embolism but not the initial intervention. Repositioning the patient (Choice C) and checking oxygen saturation (Choice D) are important assessments but do not address the immediate need to improve oxygenation in a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism.
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