a nurse is caring for a client who has a new temporary synchronous pacemaker which of the following should the nurse report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new temporary synchronous pacemaker. Which of the following should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pacing spikes after the QRS complex indicate a malfunction of the pacemaker and should be reported. Choice A is not directly related to the pacemaker function. Choice B, hiccups, are common and not typically associated with pacemaker issues. Choice D, a heart rate of 90 beats per minute, is within the normal range and does not indicate a pacemaker malfunction.

2. A nurse in an emergency department completes an assessment on an adolescent client with conduct disorder. The client threatened suicide to a teacher at school. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the assessment?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Asking about alcohol intake is crucial in assessing the client's risk factors and behaviors, especially in the context of a suicide threat. Understanding alcohol consumption patterns can help the nurse evaluate potential substance abuse issues and their impact on the client's mental health. Choices A, B, and D are less pertinent to the immediate concern of assessing suicide risk and conduct disorder symptoms.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following abdominal surgery and has an indwelling urinary catheter that is draining dark yellow urine at 25 ml/hr. What intervention should the nurse anticipate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should anticipate initiating continuous bladder irrigation. Dark yellow urine output at a rate of 25 ml/hr following abdominal surgery may indicate urinary stasis or obstruction, which could lead to complications like urinary retention. Continuous bladder irrigation helps prevent catheter obstruction and manage urinary retention by ensuring patency and promoting urine flow. Clamping the catheter (Choice A) could lead to urinary stasis and should be avoided. Administering a fluid bolus (Choice B) is not indicated solely based on the urine color and output described. Obtaining a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity (Choice C) may be necessary for assessing infection but does not directly address the issue of urinary stasis or obstruction.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion by increasing its excretion in the urine. Hypokalemia is a common and concerning side effect of furosemide therapy. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is less likely as furosemide tends to lower potassium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with furosemide use.

5. A client has a stage 3 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with a stage 3 pressure injury is to apply a moisture barrier ointment. This helps protect the skin, maintain moisture balance, and promote healing. Choice A is incorrect because povidone-iodine solution can be too harsh for wound care. Choice B is incorrect as hydrogen peroxide can be cytotoxic to healing tissue. Choice C is important for preventing pressure injuries but is not a direct intervention for a stage 3 wound.

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