a nurse is caring for a client who has a new temporary synchronous pacemaker which of the following should the nurse report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new temporary synchronous pacemaker. Which of the following should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pacing spikes after the QRS complex indicate a malfunction of the pacemaker and should be reported. Choice A is not directly related to the pacemaker function. Choice B, hiccups, are common and not typically associated with pacemaker issues. Choice D, a heart rate of 90 beats per minute, is within the normal range and does not indicate a pacemaker malfunction.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has bacterial meningitis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nuchal rigidity is a classic sign of bacterial meningitis and indicates inflammation of the meninges. It is characterized by neck stiffness and pain upon neck flexion. Flaccid paralysis (Choice B) is not typically associated with bacterial meningitis but rather conditions like Guillain-Barre syndrome. Bradycardia (Choice C) and hypothermia (Choice D) are not commonly seen in bacterial meningitis; instead, patients may present with fever, tachycardia, and signs of systemic inflammation.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is being educated by a nurse about dietary modifications. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Limiting protein intake is crucial for clients with chronic kidney disease as it helps prevent further kidney damage. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods (choice A) is not recommended for clients with kidney disease as high potassium levels can be harmful. Avoiding foods high in phosphorus (choice C) is important, but limiting protein intake is a higher priority. Increasing dairy product intake (choice D) is not ideal for clients with kidney disease as they may need to monitor their phosphorus intake from such foods.

4. A nurse overhears two assistive personnel (AP) discussing a client in an elevator. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to report the incident to the AP's charge nurse. This is important because discussing a client's information violates confidentiality policies. Contacting the client's family (Choice A) is not appropriate as it may breach confidentiality further. Notifying the client's provider (Choice B) is not the initial action to take in this situation, as addressing it within the facility should come first. Filing a complaint with the facility's ethics committee (Choice C) is not the immediate step and might not directly address the issue at hand.

5. A client is receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A heart rate of 68/min is lower than expected and should be reported as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Choices A, C, and D are within normal limits for a client receiving furosemide for heart failure and do not require immediate reporting. Weight loss may be expected due to diuretic therapy, a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L is within the normal range, and a urine output of 60 mL/hr indicates adequate renal perfusion.

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