ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam
1. What is the priority intervention for a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Administer anticoagulants
- C. Administer bronchodilators
- D. Reposition the patient
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism. Maintaining adequate oxygenation is crucial in these patients to prevent hypoxemia and support oxygen delivery to tissues. Administering anticoagulants may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Administering bronchodilators is not indicated for pulmonary embolism. Repositioning the patient does not address the immediate need for oxygenation.
2. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Clonidine. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider monitor?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Weight gain
- D. Insomnia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dry mouth. Dry mouth is a common adverse effect of Clonidine. Clonidine can cause a reduction in salivary flow, leading to dry mouth. This symptom can be managed by increasing fluid intake or using sugar-free gum or candy to stimulate saliva production. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While drowsiness and insomnia are potential side effects of Clonidine, dry mouth is more commonly reported. Weight gain is not typically associated with Clonidine use.
3. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?
- A. Sitting
- B. Prone
- C. Sidelying
- D. Supine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B, Prone, is incorrect as lying face down would not provide a clear view of chest expansion. Choice C, Sidelying, is also incorrect as this position may limit the visibility of chest movements. Choice D, Supine, is not the best position for assessing chest expansion as it may not offer a clear observation of chest movements during breathing.
4. Elmer is scheduled for a proctoscopy and has an I.V. The doctor wrote an order for 5mg of I.V. diazepam(Valium). Which order is correct regarding diazepam?
- A. Give diazepam in the I.V. port closest to the vein.
- B. Mix diazepam with 50 ml of dextrose 5% in water and give over 15 minutes.
- C. Give diazepam rapidly I.V. to prevent the bloodstream from diluting the drug mixture.
- D. Question the order because I.V. administration of diazepam is contraindicated.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct method for administering I.V. diazepam is to give it in the I.V. port closest to the vein.
5. A client who has a head injury is transported to the emergency department. Which assessment does the emergency department nurse perform immediately?
- A. Pupil response
- B. Motor function
- C. Respiratory status
- D. Short-term memory
Correct answer: Respiratory status
Rationale: In a client with a head injury, assessing the respiratory status is the priority as airway and breathing are essential for life. Immediate attention to respiratory status is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation. While assessing pupil response and motor function are also important in head injuries, ensuring the client's ability to breathe takes precedence. Short-term memory assessment is not a priority in the emergent phase of care for a client with a head injury.
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