ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam
1. What is the priority intervention for a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Administer anticoagulants
- C. Administer bronchodilators
- D. Reposition the patient
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism. Maintaining adequate oxygenation is crucial in these patients to prevent hypoxemia and support oxygen delivery to tissues. Administering anticoagulants may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Administering bronchodilators is not indicated for pulmonary embolism. Repositioning the patient does not address the immediate need for oxygenation.
2. A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught by a nurse about managing protein intake. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. You should increase your intake of high-protein foods.
- B. You should limit your intake of high-protein foods.
- C. You should avoid all protein sources to prevent further kidney damage.
- D. You should increase your intake of animal protein.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'You should limit your intake of high-protein foods.' Clients with chronic kidney disease should restrict their intake of high-protein foods to lessen the workload on the kidneys and prevent further kidney damage. Option A is incorrect as increasing intake of high-protein foods can exacerbate the condition. Option C is incorrect as avoiding all protein sources is not advisable, as some proteins are essential for overall health. Option D is incorrect as increasing the intake of animal protein can put more strain on the kidneys due to the metabolites produced during protein breakdown.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing acute pain. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Piloerection
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diaphoresis. Diaphoresis, which is excessive sweating, is a common manifestation of acute pain caused by increased sympathetic nervous system activity. This response is the body's way of trying to regulate body temperature during the stress response. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension (Choice A) and tachycardia (not bradycardia as in Choice B) are more likely responses to acute pain due to sympathetic nervous system activation. Piloerection (Choice D), also known as goosebumps, is not a typical manifestation of acute pain.
4. Which medication is commonly prescribed for patients with atrial fibrillation?
- A. Warfarin
- B. Digoxin
- C. Aspirin
- D. Lisinopril
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Digoxin is commonly prescribed to manage atrial fibrillation by controlling heart rate. While Warfarin is used to prevent blood clots, it is not primarily used for controlling heart rate in atrial fibrillation. Aspirin is not the first-line treatment for atrial fibrillation and is generally not recommended for rhythm control. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure, but it is not typically prescribed as the primary medication for managing atrial fibrillation.
5. A client with preeclampsia and postpartum hemorrhage is being cared for by a nurse. The nurse should recognize that which of the following medications is contraindicated?
- A. Methylergonovine
- B. Misoprostol
- C. Dinoprostone
- D. Oxytocin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Methylergonovine. Methylergonovine is contraindicated in clients with preeclampsia due to the risk of hypertension. Misoprostol (choice B), Dinoprostone (choice C), and Oxytocin (choice D) are appropriate medications for managing postpartum hemorrhage and are not contraindicated in clients with preeclampsia.
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