Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving Morphine IV for pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Monitor the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes.
• B. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 30 minutes.
• C. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation every hour.
• D. Monitor the client's heart rate every 5 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse is to monitor the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes while on Morphine IV to promptly detect respiratory depression, a critical adverse effect associated with this medication. Respiratory depression is a common side effect of opioid medications like Morphine and can be life-threatening. Monitoring the respiratory rate frequently enables the nurse to identify early signs of respiratory compromise and intervene promptly. Monitoring other vital signs like blood pressure, oxygen saturation, or heart rate is important but not as crucial as monitoring respiratory rate when a client is on Morphine IV.

2. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
• B. 2+ pedal edema
• C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
• D. Respirations 12/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr indicates magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, is a normal finding with magnesium sulfate therapy. Choice B, 2+ pedal edema, is expected in clients with preeclampsia but does not indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity. Choice D, respirations 12/min, is within the normal range and not a concerning finding related to magnesium sulfate administration.

3. While reviewing a client's medical history, a healthcare professional notes a prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of Digoxin toxicity?

• A. Elevated blood pressure
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Yellow-tinged vision
• D. Ringing in the ears

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Yellow-tinged vision is a visual disturbance associated with Digoxin toxicity, often accompanied by other symptoms like nausea, vomiting, and confusion. Bradycardia is a common therapeutic effect of Digoxin, while elevated blood pressure and ringing in the ears are not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is yellow-tinged vision as a manifestation of Digoxin toxicity.

4. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Ramelteon, which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Baked potato
• B. Fried chicken
• C. Whole-grain bread
• D. Citrus fruits

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fried chicken. High-fat foods, like fried chicken, can delay the absorption of Ramelteon. It is important for the client to avoid such foods to ensure the medication's effectiveness. Baked potato, whole-grain bread, and citrus fruits do not have a significant interaction with Ramelteon and can be consumed safely while taking the medication.

5. A client who is receiving combination chemotherapy is exhibiting a temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of an oncologic emergency?

• A. Dry oral mucous membranes
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F)
• D. Anorexia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) can indicate an infection, which is considered an oncologic emergency in clients undergoing chemotherapy due to the heightened risk of sepsis in immunocompromised individuals. Immediate assessment and intervention are crucial to prevent severe complications. Dry oral mucous membranes, nausea and vomiting, and anorexia are common side effects of chemotherapy but are not specific indicators of an oncologic emergency like a fever in this setting.

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