ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine to assist with maintenance of abstinence from opioids. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Insomnia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Dry mouth is a common adverse effect associated with Clonidine use. Clonidine is known to cause a reduction in saliva production, leading to dry mouth. Monitoring for this adverse effect is essential to ensure client comfort and compliance with the medication. Diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of Clonidine. Insomnia is more commonly associated with opioid withdrawal rather than Clonidine use. While Clonidine is used to treat hypertension, it is not typically an adverse effect of the medication.
2. A client has a new prescription for Buspirone to treat Anxiety. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. Expect optimal therapeutic effects within 24 hours.
- C. Take this medication daily for anxiety.
- D. This medication has a low risk for dependency.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should educate the client that Buspirone has a low risk for physical or psychological dependence or tolerance. This information is crucial for the client to understand the medication's safety profile and potential risks associated with long-term use.
3. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer metoprolol to a client. Which of the following findings should the provider identify as a contraindication to receiving this medication?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hypertension
- C. Fever
- D. Rash
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, is contraindicated in clients with bradycardia as it can further lower the heart rate, potentially leading to more serious complications. Bradycardia is defined as a heart rate below 60 beats per minute, and administering metoprolol in such cases can exacerbate this condition, causing adverse effects on cardiac output. Hypertension, fever, and rash are not contraindications for metoprolol administration.
4. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch for Angina Pectoris. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Remove the patch each evening.
- B. Do not cut the patch in half even if angina attacks are under control.
- C. Remove the nitroglycerin patch for 30 minutes if a headache occurs.
- D. Apply a new patch every 48 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch is to remove the patch each evening to prevent tolerance. This allows for a nitrate-free period of 10 to 12 hours during each 24-hour period, reducing the risk of developing tolerance to the medication. Choice B is incorrect because cutting the patch could alter the dose delivery and is not recommended. Choice C is incorrect as removing the patch for 30 minutes when a headache occurs may not be effective in managing symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as Nitroglycerin patches are usually applied once daily, not every 48 hours.
5. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Monitor your pulse before taking the medication.
- C. Expect to have an increased appetite.
- D. Discontinue the medication if you feel nauseated.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When educating a client about Digoxin, it is crucial to instruct them to monitor their pulse before taking the medication. Digoxin can lead to bradycardia, so monitoring the pulse is essential to ensure it is not below 60 beats per minute before taking each dose. If the pulse is low, the client should hold the dose and seek guidance from their healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Digoxin with food may affect its absorption, Digoxin is not known to increase appetite, and feeling nauseated does not necessarily indicate the need to discontinue the medication.
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