Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine to assist with maintenance of abstinence from opioids. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Insomnia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dry mouth is a common adverse effect associated with Clonidine use. Clonidine is known to cause a reduction in saliva production, leading to dry mouth. Monitoring for this adverse effect is essential to ensure client comfort and compliance with the medication. Diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of Clonidine. Insomnia is more commonly associated with opioid withdrawal rather than Clonidine use. While Clonidine is used to treat hypertension, it is not typically an adverse effect of the medication.

2. A client is prescribed Atorvastatin. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored to assess for potential adverse effects?

• A. Blood glucose
• B. Creatine kinase
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. Sodium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Creatine kinase should be monitored in clients taking Atorvastatin as it can indicate muscle damage, a serious adverse effect of statins. Elevated creatine kinase levels may suggest myopathy or rhabdomyolysis, which are potential complications of statin therapy.

3. While providing teaching to a client with a new prescription for Enalapril, the nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following manifestations as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Tremors
• B. Dry cough
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Hyperactivity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Dry cough.' Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor known to cause a persistent dry cough as a common adverse effect. This cough should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation, as it may indicate a potential issue with the medication that needs attention to ensure the client's well-being. Tremors (Choice A), drowsiness (Choice C), and hyperactivity (Choice D) are not typically associated with Enalapril use. Therefore, they are incorrect choices for this question.

4. A healthcare provider in an emergency unit is reviewing the medical record of a client who is being evaluated for angle-closure glaucoma. Which of the following findings are indicative of this condition?

• A. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision
• B. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision
• C. Severe pain around the eyes
• D. Intraocular pressure of 12mm Hg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Severe pain around the eyes that radiates over the face is a characteristic symptom of acute angle-closure glaucoma. This intense pain is typically accompanied by other symptoms such as blurred vision, halos around lights, redness in the eye, and sometimes nausea and vomiting. The acute rise in intraocular pressure leads to these symptoms, indicating a medical emergency that requires immediate attention to prevent vision loss. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision is more suggestive of conditions like age-related macular degeneration or diabetic retinopathy. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision is commonly seen in conditions like open-angle glaucoma. An intraocular pressure of 12mm Hg is within the normal range and not indicative of the acute rise seen in angle-closure glaucoma.

5. A client has a new prescription for Methotrexate to treat Rheumatoid Arthritis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. Take this medication with food to prevent nausea.
• B. Drink plenty of fluids to stay hydrated while on this medication.
• C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• D. Wear sunscreen when outdoors while taking this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking Methotrexate is to avoid alcohol, as it can increase the risk of liver damage. Alcohol consumption should be avoided to prevent potential adverse effects while on this medication.

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