ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024
1. A client with peptic ulcer disease is being taught about managing the condition. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should eat small, frequent meals that are low in fiber.
- B. I will limit my intake of caffeine-containing beverages.
- C. I should take NSAIDs to relieve my pain.
- D. I will drink milk before bedtime to decrease acid production.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'I will limit my intake of caffeine-containing beverages.' Limiting intake of caffeine-containing beverages is important for managing peptic ulcer disease as caffeine can stimulate gastric acid secretion, which may worsen the condition. It is advisable to choose decaffeinated beverages and avoid caffeinated drinks to help reduce the risk of aggravating the ulcer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A suggests eating small, frequent meals low in fiber, which is not ideal for managing peptic ulcer disease. Choice C of taking NSAIDs is contraindicated as NSAIDs can worsen peptic ulcers. Choice D of drinking milk before bedtime to decrease acid production is a common misconception; while milk may temporarily neutralize stomach acid, it can stimulate more acid production later, making the condition worse.
2. A client with type 2 Diabetes Mellitus is starting Repaglinide. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the administration of this medication?
- A. I'll take this medicine with my meals.
- B. I'll take this medicine 30 minutes before I eat.
- C. I'll take this medicine just before I go to bed.
- D. I'll take this medicine as soon as I wake up in the morning.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Repaglinide causes a rapid, short-lived release of insulin. It is crucial for the client to take this medication 15-30 minutes before each meal to synchronize the peak insulin availability with mealtime glucose elevation, maximizing its effectiveness in controlling blood sugar levels. Choice A is incorrect because taking the medicine with meals may not optimize its action. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medicine before going to bed is not in line with its mechanism of action. Choice D is incorrect as taking the medicine upon waking up does not coincide with mealtime glucose elevation.
3. A client has a new diagnosis of Fibromyalgia. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate being prescribed for this client?
- A. Colchicine
- B. Hydroxychloroquine
- C. Auranofin
- D. Duloxetine
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Duloxetine. Duloxetine is commonly used to treat fibromyalgia as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. It is also indicated for depression and diabetic peripheral neuropathy. Colchicine, Hydroxychloroquine, and Auranofin are not typically prescribed for fibromyalgia. Colchicine is primarily used to treat gout, Hydroxychloroquine for conditions like malaria and rheumatoid arthritis, and Auranofin for rheumatoid arthritis.
4. A healthcare provider is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for metronidazole. The healthcare provider should instruct the client to avoid which of the following?
- A. Dairy products
- B. Alcohol
- C. Leafy green vegetables
- D. Grapefruit juice
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Alcohol. Clients should avoid alcohol while taking metronidazole due to the risk of a disulfiram-like reaction. This reaction can cause symptoms like flushing, headache, nausea, and vomiting when alcohol is consumed while on metronidazole. Dairy products, leafy green vegetables, and grapefruit juice do not have significant interactions with metronidazole. Dairy products do not interfere with metronidazole absorption; leafy green vegetables are safe to consume as they do not affect metronidazole metabolism, and grapefruit juice is not contraindicated with metronidazole.
5. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyponatremia. Furosemide, a diuretic, commonly causes hyponatremia (low sodium levels) as it increases the excretion of sodium. The nurse needs to monitor the client for signs of hyponatremia, such as confusion, weakness, and muscle cramps, by checking electrolyte levels regularly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hyperkalemia (choice A), hypernatremia (choice C), and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not typically associated with Furosemide use.
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