Nursing Elites

1. A male client recently started taking Haloperidol. Which of the following findings is the highest priority to report to the provider?

• A. Shuffling gait
• B. Neck spasms
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Impotence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck spasms are an indication of acute dystonia, a serious side effect of Haloperidol that can quickly progress to a crisis situation. Immediate medical attention is necessary to prevent complications. Shuffling gait and drowsiness are common side effects of Haloperidol but are not as urgent as neck spasms. Impotence is not typically associated with Haloperidol use. Therefore, identifying neck spasms as the priority finding is crucial for the client's safety.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin via continuous IV infusion. Which of the following results indicates that the heparin infusion should be increased?

• A. aPTT of 90 seconds
• B. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³
• C. INR of 1.0
• D. Hgb of 15 g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is above the therapeutic range for heparin, which typically falls between 60-80 seconds. This indicates that the current heparin dose is too high, and the infusion rate should be decreased to avoid excessive anticoagulation and the risk of bleeding. Monitoring aPTT is crucial in adjusting heparin therapy to maintain it within the therapeutic range.

3. A client has a new prescription for Levothyroxine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Take this medication at bedtime.
• C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Take this medication with antacids.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach to increase absorption and efficacy. Taking it with food or antacids can interfere with its absorption. By taking Levothyroxine on an empty stomach, the client ensures optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication list of a client scheduled for surgery. Which of the following medications places the client at risk for increased bleeding during surgery?

• A. Warfarin
• B. Acetaminophen
• C. Ibuprofen
• D. Aspirin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Aspirin is an anticoagulant that inhibits platelet function, increasing the risk of bleeding during surgery. It is important for the healthcare professional to identify this medication, inform the surgical team, and consider withholding it prior to surgery to reduce the risk of excessive bleeding. Warfarin is also an anticoagulant but can be managed by adjusting the dosage or monitoring INR levels. Acetaminophen and ibuprofen are not associated with increased bleeding risk as they do not affect platelet function like aspirin.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a transfusion of 300 mL of pooled platelets for a client who has severe Thrombocytopenia. How long should the healthcare professional plan to administer the transfusion over?

• A. Within 30 min/unit
• B. Within 60 min/unit
• C. Within 2 hr/unit
• D. Within 4 hr/unit

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Platelets are fragile components that must be administered quickly to maintain their effectiveness and minimize the risk of clumping. The recommended administration time for platelets is within 15 to 30 minutes per unit. This rapid administration helps ensure the platelets remain viable and functional for the client receiving the transfusion. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer the transfusion within 30 minutes per unit. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they exceed the recommended administration time for platelets, which could compromise their efficacy and pose risks to the client.

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