a nurse is assessing a male client who recently began taking haloperidol which of the following findings is the highest priority to report to the prov
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A male client recently started taking Haloperidol. Which of the following findings is the highest priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck spasms are an indication of acute dystonia, a serious side effect of Haloperidol that can quickly progress to a crisis situation. Immediate medical attention is necessary to prevent complications. Shuffling gait and drowsiness are common side effects of Haloperidol but are not as urgent as neck spasms. Impotence is not typically associated with Haloperidol use. Therefore, identifying neck spasms as the priority finding is crucial for the client's safety.

2. Why should the nitrate patch be off for 8 hours per day?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Removing the nitrate patch for 8 hours each day is essential to prevent the body from developing tolerance to the medication. By allowing the body to have a drug-free period, the effectiveness of the medication is maintained over time. This practice helps in ensuring that the nitrate patch continues to provide its intended therapeutic effects without diminishing its efficacy. Therefore, it is important for the client to adhere to the prescribed schedule of removing the patch for 8 hours daily to optimize the treatment outcomes.

3. A client has a new prescription for Sucralfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include for a client prescribed Sucralfate is to take the medication on an empty stomach. Sucralfate works by forming a protective barrier over ulcers, which is most effective when the stomach is empty. Taking it with food or other medications may decrease its effectiveness. Instructing the client to take Sucralfate on an empty stomach helps ensure optimal therapeutic benefits. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing high-sodium foods is not related to Sucralfate therapy, taking the medication with a full glass of milk is not recommended as it may decrease its effectiveness, and the presence of black and tarry stools is not an expected outcome of Sucralfate.

4. A client with renal failure and an elevated phosphorus level is prescribed aluminum hydroxide 300 mg PO three times daily. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse inform the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct. Aluminum hydroxide is known to cause constipation as a common side effect. Instructing the client about this potential adverse effect is important for their awareness and management. The other options, metallic taste, headache, and muscle spasms, are not typically associated with aluminum hydroxide use. Therefore, the nurse should focus on educating the client about the increased risk of constipation and provide guidance on managing this side effect to improve the client's comfort and treatment adherence.

5. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is prescribed Digoxin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional monitor to assess for potential toxicity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bradycardia. Bradycardia is a common sign of Digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia due to its effects on the heart's electrical conduction system. Monitoring the client's heart rate regularly is essential to detect and manage toxicity promptly. Choice B, Hypertension, is incorrect as Digoxin toxicity typically presents with bradycardia and not hypertension. Choices C and D, Hypoglycemia and Hypercalcemia, are also incorrect as they are not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity.

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