ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A male client recently started taking Haloperidol. Which of the following findings is the highest priority to report to the provider?
- A. Shuffling gait
- B. Neck spasms
- C. Drowsiness
- D. Impotence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Neck spasms are an indication of acute dystonia, a serious side effect of Haloperidol that can quickly progress to a crisis situation. Immediate medical attention is necessary to prevent complications. Shuffling gait and drowsiness are common side effects of Haloperidol but are not as urgent as neck spasms. Impotence is not typically associated with Haloperidol use. Therefore, identifying neck spasms as the priority finding is crucial for the client's safety.
2. A client in a substance abuse clinic is being assessed by a nurse after discontinuing disulfiram due to severe nausea and vomiting. What is the likely cause of the client's distress?
- A. The client demonstrated an allergic response to the medication.
- B. The client experienced a common side effect of the medication.
- C. The client consumed alcohol while taking the medication.
- D. The client took an overdose of the medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Disulfiram, when combined with alcohol, leads to a severe reaction causing nausea and vomiting. Since the client experienced these symptoms after starting disulfiram, it is likely that they consumed alcohol while taking the medication. Choice A is incorrect because the symptoms are more indicative of the interaction with alcohol rather than an allergic response. Choice B is incorrect as severe nausea and vomiting are not common side effects of disulfiram alone. Choice D is incorrect as there is no indication of an overdose based on the symptoms described.
3. A client has a new prescription for alendronate to treat osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Take the medication with food to reduce nausea.
- B. Take the medication first thing in the morning on an empty stomach.
- C. Take the medication with a full glass of milk.
- D. Take the medication with meals.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Alendronate should be taken first thing in the morning on an empty stomach to maximize absorption. Taking it with food, milk, or meals can reduce its effectiveness by impairing absorption. Therefore, advising the client to take it on an empty stomach is crucial for optimal therapeutic outcomes.
4. When a client is receiving treatment with methotrexate, which supplement should the nurse instruct the client to take?
- A. Folic acid
- B. Vitamin D
- C. Calcium
- D. Iron
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Folic acid supplementation is crucial for clients undergoing methotrexate treatment because methotrexate functions as a folic acid antagonist. By supplementing with folic acid, the risk of methotrexate toxicity can be minimized, improving the treatment's effectiveness and safety. Vitamin D, calcium, and iron are not specifically recommended in conjunction with methotrexate therapy and may not provide the same protective benefits as folic acid.
5. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's health record and notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider identify as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?
- A. Captopril
- B. Lisinopril
- C. Furosemide
- D. Spironolactone
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts on the kidneys to increase urine production. This increased urine output can lead to the excessive excretion of potassium, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels and considering supplementation may be necessary when a patient is on furosemide to prevent or manage hypokalemia.
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