a nurse is assessing a male client who recently began taking haloperidol which of the following findings is the highest priority to report to the prov
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A male client recently started taking Haloperidol. Which of the following findings is the highest priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck spasms are an indication of acute dystonia, a serious side effect of Haloperidol that can quickly progress to a crisis situation. Immediate medical attention is necessary to prevent complications. Shuffling gait and drowsiness are common side effects of Haloperidol but are not as urgent as neck spasms. Impotence is not typically associated with Haloperidol use. Therefore, identifying neck spasms as the priority finding is crucial for the client's safety.

2. A school-age child has a new prescription for Atomoxetine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Liver damage is an adverse effect of Atomoxetine. The nurse should monitor for manifestations such as jaundice, upper abdominal tenderness, darkening of urine, and elevated liver enzymes. It is crucial to be vigilant for signs of liver damage to ensure early detection and intervention to prevent further complications. Kidney toxicity is not a common adverse effect of Atomoxetine. Seizure activity and adrenal insufficiency are also not typically associated with this medication.

3. A client is prescribed an IM dose of penicillin. She reports developing a rash after taking penicillin 3 years ago. What action should the healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The healthcare professional should withhold the medication and notify the provider of the client's previous reaction to penicillin. It is crucial to report any past allergic reactions to medications, as this information guides the provider in prescribing a safe alternative. Administering the prescribed dose without considering the client's history of developing a rash can lead to potentially severe adverse reactions. Changing the prescription to an oral form or administering an oral antihistamine does not address the risk of an allergic reaction to penicillin in this case.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin via continuous IV infusion. Which of the following results indicates that the heparin infusion should be increased?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is above the therapeutic range for heparin, which typically falls between 60-80 seconds. This indicates that the current heparin dose is too high, and the infusion rate should be decreased to avoid excessive anticoagulation and the risk of bleeding. Monitoring aPTT is crucial in adjusting heparin therapy to maintain it within the therapeutic range.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a transfusion of a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) for a client who has severe anemia. Which of the following interventions will prevent an acute hemolytic reaction?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain help from another healthcare provider to confirm the correct client and blood product. This action is crucial in preventing an acute hemolytic reaction, which is caused by ABO or Rh incompatibility. Verifying the correct client and blood product before the transfusion ensures that there are no errors in identification, reducing the risk of a potentially life-threatening reaction. Choices A, C, and D are important aspects of transfusion safety but are not directly related to preventing acute hemolytic reactions. Ensuring a patent IV line, monitoring vital signs, and staying with the client are all essential during transfusion but do not specifically address the risk of ABO or Rh incompatibility reactions.

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