ATI RN TEST BANK

ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 1

A client is prescribed digoxin 0.125 mg daily for heart failure. Which of the following client reports should concern the nurse as a sign of digoxin toxicity?

    A. Increased appetite

    B. Visual disturbances

    C. Weight gain

    D. Constipation

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Visual disturbances such as blurred vision or seeing halos around lights are common signs of digoxin toxicity. Increased appetite, weight gain, and constipation are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Weight gain could be a sign of worsening heart failure rather than digoxin toxicity. Increased appetite and constipation are not specific signs of digoxin toxicity and are less likely to be related.

A nurse is caring for a client receiving theophylline for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following client findings indicates the need for immediate intervention?

  • A. Productive cough
  • B. Drowsiness
  • C. Vomiting
  • D. Polyuria

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Polyuria is a sign of theophylline toxicity and requires immediate intervention. Theophylline toxicity can lead to serious complications, and polyuria is a concerning symptom that indicates the need for urgent medical attention. Productive cough, drowsiness, and vomiting are common side effects of theophylline but are not typically indicative of immediate life-threatening issues like polyuria in the context of theophylline toxicity.

A client is prescribed propranolol. Which of the following client history findings would require the nurse to clarify this medication prescription?

  • A. Asthma
  • B. Hypertension
  • C. Tachydysrhythmias
  • D. Urolithiasis

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Asthma. Clients with asthma should avoid Beta2 Blockade agents like propranolol as they can lead to bronchoconstriction, potentially worsening asthma symptoms. Choice B, hypertension, is not a contraindication for propranolol; in fact, it is commonly prescribed for hypertension. Choice C, tachydysrhythmias, is often an indication for propranolol due to its antiarrhythmic properties. Choice D, urolithiasis, does not directly impact the use of propranolol.

A client with an artificial heart valve is prescribed warfarin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of warfarin?

  • A. Hemoglobin (Hgb)
  • B. Prothrombin time (PT)
  • C. Bleeding time
  • D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT). Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the clotting factors dependent on vitamin K, such as factors II, VII, IX, and X. The prothrombin time (PT) measures the extrinsic pathway and is used to monitor the therapeutic effects of warfarin therapy. Monitoring PT helps assess the time it takes for the blood to clot, ensuring that the anticoagulant effect is within the desired range. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hemoglobin (Hgb) measures the amount of hemoglobin in the blood, bleeding time assesses the time it takes for bleeding to stop, and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin therapy.

A client prescribed lisinopril for hypertension may experience which of the following side effects that the nurse should monitor for?

  • A. Cough
  • B. Weight gain
  • C. Dry mouth
  • D. Hyperglycemia

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A persistent dry cough is a common side effect of lisinopril. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause a cough due to the accumulation of bradykinin. Weight gain, dry mouth, and hyperglycemia are not typically associated with lisinopril use, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

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