ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 1
1. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer bisacodyl suppository to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?
- A. Don sterile gloves
- B. Lubricate index finger
- C. Use a rectal applicator for insertion
- D. Position client supine with knees bent
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action when administering a bisacodyl suppository is to lubricate the index finger for easier insertion. Using a rectal applicator for insertion is not recommended for bisacodyl suppositories. Positioning the client supine with knees bent is not necessary for the administration of a bisacodyl suppository. While wearing gloves is important for infection control, sterile gloves are not required for this procedure.
2. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer heparin sodium to a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor during therapy?
- A. INR
- B. Serum creatinine
- C. aPTT
- D. Bilirubin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT. The healthcare provider should monitor the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) value during heparin therapy to assess the client's coagulation status. Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent bleeding or clotting issues. INR (Choice A) is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Serum creatinine (Choice B) is not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy. Bilirubin (Choice D) is related to liver function, not heparin therapy.
3. A client is receiving magnesium sulfate for the management of preeclampsia. Which of the following client assessments should the nurse monitor to prevent complications of therapy?
- A. Bowel sounds
- B. Deep tendon reflexes
- C. Oxygen saturation
- D. Fluid balance
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is deep tendon reflexes. Monitoring deep tendon reflexes is crucial to assess for magnesium toxicity during therapy for preeclampsia. Magnesium sulfate can lead to neuromuscular blockade, reflected by decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes. Assessing bowel sounds (choice A) is important for gastrointestinal function but is not directly related to magnesium sulfate therapy. Oxygen saturation (choice C) is vital for respiratory status but is not specifically linked to magnesium sulfate administration. Fluid balance (choice D) is essential but does not directly correlate with monitoring for complications of magnesium sulfate therapy in the context of preeclampsia.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer morphine sulfate 2 mg IV bolus. Available is morphine sulfate 10 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?
- A. 0.2 mL
- B. 0.4 mL
- C. 0.6 mL
- D. 0.8 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should administer 0.2 mL of morphine sulfate. To calculate this, divide the desired dose (2 mg) by the concentration of the available solution (10 mg/mL). 2 mg / 10 mg/mL = 0.2 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.2 mL of morphine sulfate. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the provided concentration and desired dose.
5. A client prescribed lisinopril for hypertension may experience which of the following side effects that the nurse should monitor for?
- A. Cough
- B. Weight gain
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A persistent dry cough is a common side effect of lisinopril. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause a cough due to the accumulation of bradykinin. Weight gain, dry mouth, and hyperglycemia are not typically associated with lisinopril use, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.
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