Nursing Elites

1. A client in the operating room received a dose of Succinylcholine. During the operation, the client suddenly develops rigidity, and their body temperature begins to rise. The healthcare provider should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

• A. Neostigmine
• B. Naloxone
• C. Dantrolene
• D. Vecuronium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle rigidity and a sudden rise in temperature are manifestations of malignant hyperthermia. Dantrolene acts on skeletal muscles to reduce metabolic activity and treat malignant hyperthermia effectively. Neostigmine (choice A) is used to reverse the effects of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers, not to treat malignant hyperthermia. Naloxone (choice B) is an opioid antagonist used for opioid overdose. Vecuronium (choice D) is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker and is not used to treat malignant hyperthermia.

2. A client reports taking Aspirin four times daily for a sprained wrist. Which of the following prescribed medications taken by the client is contraindicated with aspirin?

• A. Digoxin
• B. Metformin
• C. Warfarin
• D. Nitroglycerin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, which can increase the effect of anticoagulants like warfarin, leading to an elevated risk of bleeding. Therefore, the concurrent use of aspirin and warfarin is generally contraindicated due to this potential interaction. Digoxin is not contraindicated with aspirin in most cases. Metformin and nitroglycerin do not have significant interactions with aspirin, making them less likely to be contraindicated in this scenario.

3. Which of the following is the antidote for Heparin toxicity?

• A. Protamine
• B. Methylene blue
• C. N-acetylcysteine
• D. Glucagon

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Protamine is the specific antidote for Heparin toxicity. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication, and if an overdose occurs or if there is excessive bleeding due to Heparin use, protamine, a positively charged molecule, can neutralize the anticoagulant effects of Heparin by forming a complex with it. This binding prevents Heparin from further inhibiting coagulation factors and helps in reversing its effects.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a transfusion of 300 mL of pooled platelets for a client with severe Thrombocytopenia. How should the healthcare professional plan to administer the transfusion over which of the following time frames?

• A. Within 30 minutes/unit
• B. Within 60 minutes/unit
• C. Within 2 hours/unit
• D. Within 4 hours/unit

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Platelets are fragile components that must be administered promptly to minimize the risk of clumping. The correct administration time for platelets is within 15 to 30 minutes per unit to maintain their therapeutic effectiveness and reduce adverse effects. Administering platelets over longer time frames can lead to decreased efficacy and potential harm to the patient. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer the 300 mL of pooled platelets within 30 minutes per unit.

5. A client has a fungal infection and a new prescription for amphotericin B. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider before initiating the medication?

• A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• B. Potassium 4.5 mEq/L
• C. BUN 55 mg/dL
• D. Glucose 120 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated BUN level of 55 mg/dL should be reported before starting amphotericin B due to its nephrotoxic effects. Amphotericin B can cause kidney damage, and an elevated BUN indicates impaired kidney function, increasing the risk of further renal damage with this medication. Sodium, potassium, and glucose levels are not directly associated with the nephrotoxic effects of amphotericin B, making choices A, B, and D incorrect.

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