ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A client in the operating room received a dose of Succinylcholine. During the operation, the client suddenly develops rigidity, and their body temperature begins to rise. The healthcare provider should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?
- A. Neostigmine
- B. Naloxone
- C. Dantrolene
- D. Vecuronium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Muscle rigidity and a sudden rise in temperature are manifestations of malignant hyperthermia. Dantrolene acts on skeletal muscles to reduce metabolic activity and treat malignant hyperthermia effectively. Neostigmine (choice A) is used to reverse the effects of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers, not to treat malignant hyperthermia. Naloxone (choice B) is an opioid antagonist used for opioid overdose. Vecuronium (choice D) is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker and is not used to treat malignant hyperthermia.
2. A client has a prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?
- A. Apply the patch to a hairless area of the body.
- B. Remove the patch every 12 hours.
- C. Massage the patch after applying it.
- D. Place the patch over a hairless area of the body.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch is to place it over a hairless area of the body. This is essential to ensure proper adhesion and consistent absorption of the medication. Hair can impede the patch's ability to stick to the skin and deliver the medication effectively. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Applying the patch to the same site every day (Choice A) may lead to skin irritation, removing the patch every 12 hours (Choice B) is not typically recommended for Nitroglycerin patches, and massaging the patch after applying it (Choice C) could alter its integrity and affect drug delivery.
3. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's medical history and notes that the client has a prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of Digoxin toxicity?
- A. Elevated blood pressure
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Yellow-tinged vision
- D. Ringing in the ears
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Yellow-tinged vision, along with nausea, vomiting, and confusion, are common manifestations of Digoxin toxicity. Visual disturbances are important to recognize as they can indicate the need for immediate medical attention and potential adjustment of Digoxin therapy to prevent serious complications. Elevated blood pressure is not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity; instead, hypotension may occur. Bradycardia is a common therapeutic effect of Digoxin rather than a sign of toxicity. Ringing in the ears, or tinnitus, is also a potential side effect of Digoxin but is less specific to toxicity compared to yellow-tinged vision.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to initiate IV therapy for an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the professional plan to take?
- A. Use an electric shaver to remove excess hair on the extremity.
- B. Select the antecubital area to insert the IV catheter.
- C. Distend the veins by using a blood pressure cuff.
- D. Instruct the client to keep the extremity still during the procedure.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Distending the veins using a blood pressure cuff is essential for facilitating visualization and access to the veins during IV catheter insertion. This technique helps healthcare professionals identify suitable veins, reducing the risk of complications like infiltration or hematoma formation. Using an electric shaver to remove hair on the extremity (Choice A) may increase the risk of micro-cuts and introduce infection. Selecting the antecubital area (Choice B) may not always be appropriate, as vein condition and accessibility vary among older adult clients. Instructing the client to keep the extremity still (Choice D) is important but is not directly related to preparing for IV therapy.
5. How can the nurse best explain the difference between angina and a myocardial infarction to a client presenting with severe chest pain?
- A. “Angina usually resolves with rest, and is rarely fatal, while a myocardial infarction necessitates immediate treatment and can be life-threatening.”
- B. “There is a clear distinction between the two. You will receive treatment based on the diagnosis of a myocardial infarction.”
- C. “Both conditions result from a clot obstructing the coronary arteries. Angina occurs with the blockage of a small vessel, whereas a myocardial infarction occurs with a blockage of a large vessel.”
- D. “Angina may not cause as intense chest pain, whereas a myocardial infarction always presents with severe chest pain.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When educating a client about the differences between angina and a myocardial infarction, it is crucial to emphasize key distinguishing factors. Angina typically improves with rest and is not usually life-threatening, whereas a myocardial infarction requires urgent intervention as it can be life-threatening. This explanation helps the client understand the urgency and severity associated with a myocardial infarction compared to angina.
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