Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch for Angina Pectoris. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Remove the patch each evening.
• B. Do not cut the patch in half even if angina attacks are under control.
• C. Remove the nitroglycerin patch for 30 minutes if a headache occurs.
• D. Apply a new patch every 48 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch is to remove the patch each evening to prevent tolerance. This allows for a nitrate-free period of 10 to 12 hours during each 24-hour period, reducing the risk of developing tolerance to the medication. Choice B is incorrect because cutting the patch could alter the dose delivery and is not recommended. Choice C is incorrect as removing the patch for 30 minutes when a headache occurs may not be effective in managing symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as Nitroglycerin patches are usually applied once daily, not every 48 hours.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Spironolactone. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hypocalcemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, so the nurse should monitor the client for hyperkalemia, which can cause muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias.

3. A healthcare provider is providing teaching to a client who is starting therapy with paclitaxel. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Neutropenia
• D. Urinary retention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neutropenia. Paclitaxel commonly causes neutropenia due to bone marrow suppression. It is essential for clients receiving this medication to monitor for signs of neutropenia, such as fever, chills, and increased susceptibility to infections, as it can increase the risk of serious complications.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's health record and notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider identify as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?

• A. Captopril
• B. Lisinopril
• C. Furosemide
• D. Spironolactone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts on the kidneys to increase urine production. This increased urine output can lead to the excessive excretion of potassium, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels and considering supplementation may be necessary when a patient is on furosemide to prevent or manage hypokalemia.

5. A client has a new prescription for Oxycodone/Acetaminophen. Which of the following instructions should be included in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Avoid taking additional Acetaminophen while on this medication.
• C. Increase your intake of fiber while on this medication.
• D. Avoid taking the medication before bedtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid taking additional Acetaminophen while on Oxycodone/Acetaminophen. This is important to prevent exceeding the maximum recommended dose and reducing the risk of liver toxicity. Oxycodone/Acetaminophen already contains Acetaminophen, so additional intake can lead to an overdose of this component. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking the medication on an empty stomach or increasing fiber intake are not specific instructions related to this medication. Avoiding taking the medication before bedtime is not directly relevant to the combination of Oxycodone/Acetaminophen.

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