Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch for Angina Pectoris. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Remove the patch each evening.
• B. Do not cut the patch in half even if angina attacks are under control.
• C. Remove the nitroglycerin patch for 30 minutes if a headache occurs.
• D. Apply a new patch every 48 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch is to remove the patch each evening to prevent tolerance. This allows for a nitrate-free period of 10 to 12 hours during each 24-hour period, reducing the risk of developing tolerance to the medication. Choice B is incorrect because cutting the patch could alter the dose delivery and is not recommended. Choice C is incorrect as removing the patch for 30 minutes when a headache occurs may not be effective in managing symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as Nitroglycerin patches are usually applied once daily, not every 48 hours.

2. A client is taking oral Oxycodone and Ibuprofen. The nurse should identify that an interaction between these two medications will cause which of the following findings?

• A. A decrease in serum levels of ibuprofen, possibly leading to a need for increased doses of this medication.
• B. A decrease in serum levels of oxycodone, possibly leading to a need for increased doses of this medication.
• C. An increase in the expected therapeutic effect of both medications.
• D. An increase in expected adverse effects for both medications.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The interaction between oxycodone and ibuprofen results in an increase in the expected therapeutic effect of both medications. Oxycodone is a narcotic analgesic, while ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). They work through different mechanisms but complement each other in pain management. When taken together, they can enhance the pain-relieving effects of each other, providing better pain relief for the client.

3. A client has been prescribed diltiazem (Cardizem) and asks the nurse what type of drug this is. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. “A beta blocker.”
• B. “A sodium channel blocker.”
• C. “An alpha blocker.”
• D. “A calcium channel blocker.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diltiazem (Cardizem) belongs to the class of drugs known as calcium channel blockers. These medications work by blocking calcium from entering the muscle cells of the heart and blood vessels, leading to relaxation of the blood vessels and reduced workload on the heart. This helps in lowering blood pressure and improving blood flow. It is crucial for the nurse to provide accurate information to the client about the type of drug prescribed to ensure understanding and compliance with the treatment plan.

4. A client is being taught by a healthcare professional about preventing Otitis Externa. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Clean the ear with a cotton-tipped swab daily
• B. Place earplugs in the ears when sleeping at night
• C. Use a cool water irrigation solution to remove earwax
• D. Tip the head to the side to remove water from the ears after showering

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To prevent Otitis Externa, it is important to remove water from the ears after showering or swimming. This helps reduce the risk of moisture buildup in the ear canal, which can lead to infection. Cleaning the ear with a cotton-tipped swab daily can actually increase the risk of injury or infection. Placing earplugs in the ears when sleeping at night may trap moisture and promote bacterial growth. Using a cool water irrigation solution to remove earwax is not recommended as it can disrupt the natural balance of the ear canal.

5. A client has a new prescription for atenolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Bradycardia.' Atenolol, a beta-blocker, commonly causes bradycardia as an adverse effect. It works by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to a decreased heart rate known as bradycardia. Monitoring for signs of bradycardia is essential to prevent any potential complications while on atenolol. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because atenolol is not known to cause tachycardia, hypoglycemia, or hypertension as common adverse effects.

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