ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology
1. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch for Angina Pectoris. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Remove the patch each evening.
- B. Do not cut the patch in half even if angina attacks are under control.
- C. Remove the nitroglycerin patch for 30 minutes if a headache occurs.
- D. Apply a new patch every 48 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch is to remove the patch each evening to prevent tolerance. This allows for a nitrate-free period of 10 to 12 hours during each 24-hour period, reducing the risk of developing tolerance to the medication. Choice B is incorrect because cutting the patch could alter the dose delivery and is not recommended. Choice C is incorrect as removing the patch for 30 minutes when a headache occurs may not be effective in managing symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as Nitroglycerin patches are usually applied once daily, not every 48 hours.
2. A healthcare provider is planning to administer Ciprofloxacin IV to a client who has cystitis. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?
- A. Administer a concentrated solution.
- B. Infuse the medication over 60 min.
- C. Infuse the solution through the primary IV fluid tubing.
- D. Choose a small peripheral vein for administration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Ciprofloxacin should be infused over 60 minutes to minimize vein irritation and reduce the risk of adverse effects. Administering a concentrated solution can lead to vein irritation and potential complications. Infusing the solution through the primary IV fluid tubing can cause incompatibility issues. Choosing a small peripheral vein may not be suitable for administering Ciprofloxacin, which should be infused through a larger vein to prevent vein irritation and ensure a proper dilution of the medication.
3. A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. Which statement by the client indicates an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. I can walk a mile a day.
- B. I've had a backache for several days.
- C. I am urinating more frequently.
- D. I feel nauseated and have no appetite.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nausea and loss of appetite are common early signs of digoxin toxicity, indicating an adverse effect of the medication. These symptoms should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation and management.
4. A client with brain cancer and headaches is prescribed dexamethasone. What is the purpose of this adjuvant medication?
- A. To decrease inflammation and swelling
- B. To improve concentration
- C. To induce sedation
- D. To treat depression
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Dexamethasone, a glucocorticoid, is indicated for clients with brain cancer to decrease inflammation and swelling. It helps reduce cerebral edema and relieve pressure caused by the tumor, ultimately alleviating headaches. The purpose of prescribing dexamethasone in this case is not to improve concentration (choice B), induce sedation (choice C), or treat depression (choice D). Methylphenidate, a stimulant, is used for conditions like ADHD, not for brain cancer. Hydroxyzine, an antihistamine, is primarily used for anxiety and itching, not for brain cancer. Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, is used for conditions like depression and neuropathic pain, not specifically for brain cancer-related headaches.
5. A client has a new prescription for Ramelteon and is receiving teaching from a nurse. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which of the following foods while taking this medication?
- A. Baked potato
- B. Fried chicken
- C. Whole-grain bread
- D. Citrus fruits
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fried chicken. High-fat foods like fried chicken can prolong the absorption of Ramelteon, potentially reducing its effectiveness. It is important to avoid such foods to ensure the medication works as intended.
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