ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client has a new prescription for Nifedipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Edema
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Edema. Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should closely observe the client's lower extremities for any signs of swelling, which could indicate the development of edema. Choice A, Hypertension, is incorrect because Nifedipine is used to treat hypertension, not cause it. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is unrelated to Nifedipine's common adverse effects. Choice D, Bradycardia, is not typically associated with Nifedipine use.
2. A nurse is caring for a client with hypertension who asks about a prescription for propranolol. The nurse should inform the client that this medication is contraindicated in clients with a history of which of the following conditions?
- A. Asthma
- B. Glaucoma
- C. Depression
- D. Migraines
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Propranolol is contraindicated in clients with a history of asthma because it can cause bronchospasms due to its non-selective beta-blocking properties. By blocking beta-2 receptors in the lungs, propranolol can lead to bronchoconstriction, potentially triggering asthma symptoms and exacerbating respiratory issues. Asthma patients should avoid medications like propranolol that can worsen their condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as propranolol is not contraindicated in clients with glaucoma, depression, or migraines. In fact, propranolol is sometimes used in the treatment of migraines and certain types of glaucoma.
3. A client is taking Spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse monitor and report to the provider?
- A. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
- B. Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L
- C. Chloride level of 100 mEq/L
- D. Calcium level of 9.5 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia (elevated potassium levels). A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is considered elevated and should be reported to the provider for further assessment and management to prevent potential complications. Choices A, C, and D are not directly affected by Spironolactone and do not typically require immediate reporting unless there are other underlying issues or specific instructions for those electrolytes.
4. A client has a new prescription for Levofloxacin. Which of the following instructions should be included in the discharge instructions?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. Avoid taking this medication with dairy products.
- C. Take this medication at bedtime.
- D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid taking this medication with dairy products.' Levofloxacin should not be taken with dairy products because calcium can interfere with the absorption of the medication. It is recommended to take Levofloxacin 1 hour before or 2 hours after consuming dairy products to ensure optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is not recommended as Levofloxacin is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is not necessary information for taking Levofloxacin. Choice D is unrelated to the administration of Levofloxacin.
5. A client has a new prescription for Alteplase. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- A. Administer the medication within 4 hours of the onset of symptoms.
- B. Reconstitute the medication with sterile saline.
- C. Administer heparin concurrently with the Alteplase infusion.
- D. Monitor for changes in level of consciousness.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Alteplase is a thrombolytic agent used to dissolve blood clots. Patients receiving Alteplase are at risk for bleeding complications, including intracranial bleeding. Monitoring for changes in the level of consciousness is crucial as it can indicate early signs of bleeding, such as increased intracranial pressure. This rapid assessment allows for timely intervention and prevention of further complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Administering Alteplase within 4 hours of symptom onset is related to the time-sensitive nature of thrombolytic therapy for conditions like acute myocardial infarction or ischemic stroke. Reconstituting Alteplase with sterile saline is a correct step in preparing the medication for administration. Administering heparin concurrently with Alteplase is generally avoided due to the increased risk of bleeding.
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