Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Nifedipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Edema
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Edema. Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should closely observe the client's lower extremities for any signs of swelling, which could indicate the development of edema. Choice A, Hypertension, is incorrect because Nifedipine is used to treat hypertension, not cause it. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is unrelated to Nifedipine's common adverse effects. Choice D, Bradycardia, is not typically associated with Nifedipine use.

2. A client is receiving IV Dopamine for the treatment of shock. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Increased urine output
• D. Decreased respiratory rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is increased urine output. Dopamine increases cardiac output and improves renal perfusion, leading to increased urine output. This response indicates that the medication is effective in treating shock by enhancing renal function and perfusion. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because an increased heart rate, decreased blood pressure, and decreased respiratory rate are not findings that indicate the effectiveness of IV Dopamine in treating shock.

3. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?

• A. Avoid salt substitutes.
• B. Take this medication at bedtime.
• C. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. Take this medication with food.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid salt substitutes. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia, so it's essential to avoid salt substitutes that may contain potassium which can further elevate potassium levels. Choice B is incorrect because Lisinopril is typically taken once daily in the morning, not at bedtime. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium intake can exacerbate hyperkalemia when taking Lisinopril. Choice D is incorrect as Lisinopril is usually taken on an empty stomach, not with food.

4. When providing discharge instructions to a client prescribed Prednisone, which of the following dietary instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• B. Increase your intake of dairy products.
• C. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• D. Decrease your intake of protein.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Prednisone can lead to potassium depletion, making it essential to consume foods high in potassium, such as bananas, oranges, and spinach, to maintain electrolyte balance and prevent complications. Choice B is incorrect because increasing dairy products is not specifically necessary when taking Prednisone. Choice C is wrong as foods high in vitamin K are not contraindicated with Prednisone. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to decrease protein intake when prescribed Prednisone.

5. A client is prescribed Diltiazem. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can lead to bradycardia as an adverse effect due to its negative chronotropic and dromotropic effects on the heart. The nurse should monitor the client's heart rate regularly to detect any signs of bradycardia and take appropriate actions if necessary. Tachycardia (Choice A) is not an expected finding with Diltiazem use. Hypertension (Choice C) is actually a condition that Diltiazem is used to treat. Hyperkalemia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of Diltiazem.

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