a nurse is preparing to administer diltiazem iv to a client who has atrial fibrillation which of the following findings should the nurse report immedi
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Diltiazem IV to a client who has atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report immediately?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is bradycardia. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Bradycardia should be reported immediately because it can result in serious cardiac complications, especially in a client with atrial fibrillation. Hypertension, shortness of breath, and tachycardia are not typically associated with Diltiazem administration and would not be immediate concerns in this scenario.

2. A client's plasma Lithium level is 2.1 mEq/L. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a plasma lithium level of 2.1 mEq/L, immediate gastric lavage is appropriate for severe toxicity. Gastric lavage can help lower the client's lithium level by removing the unabsorbed lithium from the stomach.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to initiate IV therapy for an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the professional plan to take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Distending the veins using a blood pressure cuff is essential for facilitating visualization and access to the veins during IV catheter insertion. This technique helps healthcare professionals identify suitable veins, reducing the risk of complications like infiltration or hematoma formation. Using an electric shaver to remove hair on the extremity (Choice A) may increase the risk of micro-cuts and introduce infection. Selecting the antecubital area (Choice B) may not always be appropriate, as vein condition and accessibility vary among older adult clients. Instructing the client to keep the extremity still (Choice D) is important but is not directly related to preparing for IV therapy.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's medication history and notes a new prescription for Enalapril. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which of the following as an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause hyperkalemia as an adverse effect due to decreased aldosterone levels, leading to potassium retention. Monitoring potassium levels is essential to prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not a common adverse effect of Enalapril. Enalapril does not typically affect glucose levels, so hypoglycemia (Choice C) is not a common concern with this medication. Enalapril does not directly impact calcium levels, so hypocalcemia (Choice D) is not a typical adverse effect.

5. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Warfarin interacts with vitamin K, so clients should be instructed to avoid foods high in vitamin K. This is because vitamin K can interfere with the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin. It is important to maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-containing foods to keep the medication working effectively. Therefore, the correct statement for the nurse to include in the teaching is to advise the client to avoid foods high in vitamin K while taking Warfarin. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Regular blood testing is necessary with Warfarin to monitor its effects and adjust the dosage if needed (Choice A). Taking over-the-counter NSAIDs with Warfarin is not safe due to an increased risk of bleeding (Choice B). Warfarin can be taken with or without food, so there is no specific requirement to take it with food (Choice D).

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