ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Diltiazem IV to a client who has atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report immediately?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Hypertension.
- C. Shortness of breath.
- D. Tachycardia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is bradycardia. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Bradycardia should be reported immediately because it can result in serious cardiac complications, especially in a client with atrial fibrillation. Hypertension, shortness of breath, and tachycardia are not typically associated with Diltiazem administration and would not be immediate concerns in this scenario.
2. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer metoprolol to a client. Which of the following findings should the provider identify as a contraindication to receiving this medication?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hypertension
- C. Fever
- D. Rash
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, is contraindicated in clients with bradycardia as it can further lower the heart rate, potentially leading to more serious complications. Bradycardia is defined as a heart rate below 60 beats per minute, and administering metoprolol in such cases can exacerbate this condition, causing adverse effects on cardiac output. Hypertension, fever, and rash are not contraindications for metoprolol administration.
3. A male client recently started taking Haloperidol. Which of the following findings is the highest priority to report to the provider?
- A. Shuffling gait
- B. Neck spasms
- C. Drowsiness
- D. Impotence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Neck spasms are an indication of acute dystonia, a serious side effect of Haloperidol that can quickly progress to a crisis situation. Immediate medical attention is necessary to prevent complications. Shuffling gait and drowsiness are common side effects of Haloperidol but are not as urgent as neck spasms. Impotence is not typically associated with Haloperidol use. Therefore, identifying neck spasms as the priority finding is crucial for the client's safety.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Haloperidol 2 mg PO every 12 hr. The available dosage is haloperidol 1 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer?
- A. 1 tablet
- B. 2 tablets
- C. 3 tablets
- D. 4 tablets
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To determine the number of tablets needed, divide the desired dose by the dose per tablet. In this case, (2 mg / 1 mg/tablet) = 2 tablets required to administer the prescribed dose of Haloperidol.
5. A client reports taking Phenylephrine nasal drops for the past 10 days for Sinusitis. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Sedation
- B. Nasal congestion
- C. Productive cough
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nasal congestion. When used for more than 5 days, nasal sympathomimetic medications like phenylephrine can lead to rebound nasal congestion, which is an adverse effect to be assessed in the client. Sedation (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of phenylephrine. Productive cough (choice C) and constipation (choice D) are also not typical adverse effects associated with phenylephrine use.
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