a nurse is preparing to administer diltiazem iv to a client who has atrial fibrillation which of the following findings should the nurse report immedi
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Diltiazem IV to a client who has atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report immediately?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is bradycardia. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Bradycardia should be reported immediately because it can result in serious cardiac complications, especially in a client with atrial fibrillation. Hypertension, shortness of breath, and tachycardia are not typically associated with Diltiazem administration and would not be immediate concerns in this scenario.

2. A client has a prescription for Nitroglycerin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct administration of Nitroglycerin involves taking one tablet at the onset of chest pain, then another tablet every 5 minutes for up to three doses. This protocol aims to relieve angina symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because waiting 15 minutes between doses may delay symptom relief. Choice C is incorrect as Nitroglycerin is not typically taken at bedtime but rather during angina episodes. Choice D is incorrect because Nitroglycerin is usually taken sublingually, so it doesn't need to be taken on an empty stomach.

3. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who is prescribed Enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider instruct the client to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A persistent dry cough is a common adverse effect of Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. This cough is a result of increased bradykinin levels due to ACE inhibition. The client should be educated to monitor for a dry cough and notify the healthcare provider if it occurs, as it may indicate the need for a medication adjustment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, diarrhea, and nausea are not commonly associated adverse effects of Enalapril.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a transfusion of 300 mL of pooled platelets for a client who has severe Thrombocytopenia. How long should the healthcare professional plan to administer the transfusion over?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Platelets are fragile components that must be administered quickly to maintain their effectiveness and minimize the risk of clumping. The recommended administration time for platelets is within 15 to 30 minutes per unit. This rapid administration helps ensure the platelets remain viable and functional for the client receiving the transfusion. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer the transfusion within 30 minutes per unit. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they exceed the recommended administration time for platelets, which could compromise their efficacy and pose risks to the client.

5. A client in the post-anesthesia recovery unit received a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent and is experiencing muscle weakness. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Neostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor commonly used to reverse the effects of nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers by increasing acetylcholine levels at the neuromuscular junction, thereby helping to restore muscle strength. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid effects, not neuromuscular blockade. Dantrolene is a skeletal muscle relaxant used to treat malignant hyperthermia or neuroleptic malignant syndrome, not to reverse neuromuscular blockade. Vecuronium is a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent, like the one the client received, and is not used to reverse its effects.

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