ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Diltiazem IV to a client who has atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report immediately?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Hypertension.
- C. Shortness of breath.
- D. Tachycardia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is bradycardia. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Bradycardia should be reported immediately because it can result in serious cardiac complications, especially in a client with atrial fibrillation. Hypertension, shortness of breath, and tachycardia are not typically associated with Diltiazem administration and would not be immediate concerns in this scenario.
2. A client asks a nurse about Feverfew. Which response should the nurse provide?
- A. It is used to treat skin infections.
- B. It can decrease the frequency of migraine headaches.
- C. It can lessen the nasal congestion in the common cold.
- D. It can relieve nausea of morning sickness during pregnancy.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is B: 'It can decrease the frequency of migraine headaches.' Feverfew is known for reducing the frequency of migraine headaches, but it has not been proven to relieve an existing migraine headache. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Feverfew is not used to treat skin infections, lessen nasal congestion in the common cold, or relieve nausea of morning sickness during pregnancy.
3. A client has a new prescription for Adalimumab for Rheumatoid Arthritis. Based on the route of administration of Adalimumab, which of the following should the nurse plan to monitor?
- A. The vein for thrombophlebitis during IV administration.
- B. The subcutaneous site for redness following injection.
- C. The oral mucosa for ulceration after oral administration.
- D. The skin for irritation following removal of a transdermal patch.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Adalimumab is administered subcutaneously. Injection-site redness and swelling are common adverse effects. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the subcutaneous site for redness following the injection to assess for any potential issues or reactions.
4. A child is prescribed Amoxicillin 20 mg/kg/day PO to be administered every 12 hr. The child weighs 44 lb. The available medication is amoxicillin suspension 250 mg/5 mL. How many mL should be given per dose?
- A. 4 mL
- B. 5 mL
- C. 6 mL
- D. 3 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the dosage per administration: Convert the weight to kg (44 lb / 2.2 lb/kg = 20 kg). Then, (20 mg/kg/day x 20 kg) / 2 (for every 12 hr dosing) = 200 mg per dose. (200 mg / 250 mg) x 5 mL = 4 mL per dose. Therefore, the nurse should administer 4 mL of amoxicillin suspension per dose. Choice B, 5 mL, is incorrect because the calculation shows that 4 mL is the correct dose. Choices C and D are also incorrect as they are not in line with the calculated dosage based on the weight of the child and the concentration of the medication.
5. A client is prescribed levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective?
- A. Decreased heart rate
- B. Increased energy levels
- C. Weight loss
- D. Improved mental clarity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Increased energy levels are a key indicator of the effectiveness of levothyroxine in treating hypothyroidism. Levothyroxine works to regulate thyroid hormone levels, which can lead to improved energy levels as the body's metabolism is restored. While the other options may also improve with treatment, increased energy levels directly reflect the correction of the thyroid hormone imbalance. Decreased heart rate can be an indicator of overmedication, weight loss can be attributed to increased metabolism but may not directly reflect the effectiveness of levothyroxine, and improved mental clarity is a more general cognitive improvement that may not directly relate to thyroid function.
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