ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Diltiazem IV to a client who has atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report immediately?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Hypertension.
- C. Shortness of breath.
- D. Tachycardia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is bradycardia. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Bradycardia should be reported immediately because it can result in serious cardiac complications, especially in a client with atrial fibrillation. Hypertension, shortness of breath, and tachycardia are not typically associated with Diltiazem administration and would not be immediate concerns in this scenario.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV Vancomycin to a client who has a systemic infection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Administer the medication rapidly over 15 minutes.
- B. Monitor the client for hypertension during infusion.
- C. Administer a test dose before the full dose.
- D. Monitor the client for Red Man Syndrome.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the healthcare professional is to monitor the client for Red Man Syndrome. Red Man Syndrome is a common adverse reaction to Vancomycin characterized by flushing, rash, and hypotension. It is important to monitor the client for these symptoms to intervene promptly if they occur.
3. A client has a prescription for Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Increase fluid intake.
- C. Expect reddish-orange urine.
- D. Avoid high-protein foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole is to increase fluid intake. This helps prevent crystalluria and kidney stones, which are potential adverse effects of this medication. Adequate hydration is essential to reduce the risk of these complications.
4. A client has a new prescription for Enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?
- A. Dry cough.
- B. Hyperglycemia.
- C. Weight gain.
- D. Increased urination.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A common adverse effect of Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, is a persistent dry cough. This occurs due to the accumulation of bradykinin. It is essential for the client to monitor for this side effect and report it to their healthcare provider promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hyperglycemia, weight gain, and increased urination are not typically associated with Enalapril use.
5. A client is being taught by a healthcare professional about preventing Otitis Externa. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?
- A. Clean the ear with a cotton-tipped swab daily
- B. Place earplugs in the ears when sleeping at night
- C. Use a cool water irrigation solution to remove earwax
- D. Tip the head to the side to remove water from the ears after showering
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To prevent Otitis Externa, it is important to remove water from the ears after showering or swimming. This helps reduce the risk of moisture buildup in the ear canal, which can lead to infection. Cleaning the ear with a cotton-tipped swab daily can actually increase the risk of injury or infection. Placing earplugs in the ears when sleeping at night may trap moisture and promote bacterial growth. Using a cool water irrigation solution to remove earwax is not recommended as it can disrupt the natural balance of the ear canal.
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