Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Diltiazem IV to a client who has atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report immediately?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Hypertension.
• C. Shortness of breath.
• D. Tachycardia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is bradycardia. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Bradycardia should be reported immediately because it can result in serious cardiac complications, especially in a client with atrial fibrillation. Hypertension, shortness of breath, and tachycardia are not typically associated with Diltiazem administration and would not be immediate concerns in this scenario.

2. What should you monitor when administering Clopidogrel to a patient?

• A. Signs of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
• B. Bleeding during therapy
• C. CBC with differential and platelet count
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When administering Clopidogrel, it is crucial to monitor for signs of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura, bleeding during therapy, and changes in CBC with differential and platelet count. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura is a rare but serious condition associated with Clopidogrel use, characterized by microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, neurological symptoms, fever, and renal dysfunction. Monitoring for signs of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura is essential to detect this potentially life-threatening condition early. Monitoring for bleeding helps to assess the risk of hemorrhagic events, a known side effect of Clopidogrel. Additionally, regular monitoring of CBC with differential and platelet count is necessary to evaluate the drug's impact on blood cell counts and detect any abnormalities that may require intervention. Therefore, monitoring all these parameters is vital to ensure patient safety and appropriate management during Clopidogrel therapy.

3. A drug ending in the suffix (navir) is considered a ______.

• A. Antidepressant
• B. Protease inhibitor
• C. Beta antagonist
• D. H antagonist

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a drug name ends in the suffix -navir, it indicates that the drug is a protease inhibitor. Protease inhibitors are commonly used in antiviral therapy to treat infections by inhibiting viral replication. Therefore, the correct answer is B: Protease inhibitor.

4. A client is receiving treatment with capecitabine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Neutropenia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Capecitabine is known to cause neutropenia as a common adverse effect due to bone marrow suppression. Neutropenia increases the risk of infections and requires close monitoring to prevent complications. Hyperglycemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with capecitabine. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) and Bradycardia (Choice D) are not commonly linked to capecitabine use, making them incorrect choices.

5. A client is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L
• B. Urine output 120 mL in 4 hrs
• C. Serum Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
• D. Blood Pressure 140/90 mmHg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to potassium retention. The nurse should notify the provider and withhold the medication to prevent further elevation of potassium levels, which can result in serious cardiac complications. The other findings (Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L, Urine output 120 mL in 4 hrs, and Blood Pressure 140/90 mmHg) are within normal ranges and not directly related to spironolactone therapy.

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