ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Diltiazem IV to a client who has atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report immediately?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Hypertension.
- C. Shortness of breath.
- D. Tachycardia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is bradycardia. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Bradycardia should be reported immediately because it can result in serious cardiac complications, especially in a client with atrial fibrillation. Hypertension, shortness of breath, and tachycardia are not typically associated with Diltiazem administration and would not be immediate concerns in this scenario.
2. A client has a new prescription for Nevirapine, an NNRTI. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in teaching the client?
- A. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Take this medication with food to increase absorption.
- C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. Take this medication at the same time every day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement that the nurse should include in teaching the client about Nevirapine, an NNRTI, is to take the medication with food to improve gastrointestinal tolerance and prevent nausea. While absorption is not significantly affected by food, taking it with meals can help reduce adverse gastrointestinal effects. Choice A is incorrect because Nevirapine should not be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is generally true for most medications but is not specific to Nevirapine. Choice D is a good practice for medication adherence but is not specific to the administration requirements of Nevirapine.
3. A client has a new prescription for Methotrexate to treat Rheumatoid Arthritis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. Take this medication with food to prevent nausea.
- B. Drink plenty of fluids to stay hydrated while on this medication.
- C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. Wear sunscreen when outdoors while taking this medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking Methotrexate is to avoid alcohol, as it can increase the risk of liver damage. Alcohol consumption should be avoided to prevent potential adverse effects while on this medication.
4. A client is being taught about a new prescription for Celecoxib. Which of the following information should be included in the teaching?
- A. Increases the risk for a myocardial infarction
- B. Decreases the risk of stroke
- C. Inhibits COX-1
- D. Increases platelet aggregation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Increases the risk for a myocardial infarction.' Celecoxib, a COX-2 inhibitor, increases the risk for a myocardial infarction due to its effect on suppressing vasodilation, which can lead to this adverse cardiovascular event. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Celecoxib does not decrease the risk of stroke, inhibit COX-1, or increase platelet aggregation. It's crucial for the nurse to educate the client about the increased risk for a myocardial infarction when taking Celecoxib and emphasize monitoring for signs of heart issues and the importance of seeking prompt medical attention if symptoms occur.
5. A client is receiving imatinib. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Edema
- B. Constipation
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Urinary retention
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Imatinib is known to cause edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of fluid retention, such as swelling of the extremities or weight gain. Edema can indicate potential complications and requires prompt intervention to prevent further issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not typically associated with imatinib use. Constipation, dry mouth, and urinary retention are not commonly reported adverse effects of imatinib therapy.
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