how should the oral form of albuterol be taken

ATI RN

ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test

1. How should the oral form of albuterol be taken?

A. Administer with meals to minimize gastric irritation
B. Administer before meals with water
C. Administer after meals with water
D. Administer in the morning with milk

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct way to take oral albuterol is with meals to minimize gastric irritation. Taking it with food can help reduce the risk of stomach upset that may occur when the medication is taken on an empty stomach. This approach can improve tolerability and adherence to the treatment regimen. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking albuterol before meals, after meals, or in the morning with milk does not address the issue of minimizing gastric irritation, which is a common side effect of the medication.

2. Which of the following is classified as a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

A. Quinidine
B. Disopyramide
C. Aminodarone
D. Propafenone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Quinidine is classified as a class IA sodium channel blocker. Class IA antiarrhythmics, like quinidine, work by blocking sodium channels and delaying repolarization. Propafenone, mentioned in the original rationale, is actually a class IC antiarrhythmic agent, not a class IA sodium channel blocker.

3. A client is receiving IV Dopamine for the treatment of shock. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication is effective?

A. Increased heart rate
B. Decreased blood pressure
C. Increased urine output
D. Decreased respiratory rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dopamine is a medication used in shock to increase cardiac output and improve renal perfusion. An increase in urine output indicates that the medication is effective as it shows improved renal perfusion and kidney function, which are essential for managing shock effectively. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as an increased heart rate, decreased blood pressure, and decreased respiratory rate are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of IV Dopamine in treating shock.

4. When administering the drug lithium, what is one important side effect to watch for?

A. Anaphylaxis
B. Seizures
C. Angioedema
D. Pulmonary Edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering lithium, it is crucial to watch for the side effect of angioedema. Angioedema is a potential adverse reaction associated with lithium therapy, characterized by rapid swelling beneath the skin, often around the eyes and lips. Monitoring for this side effect is essential to promptly address and manage any signs of angioedema that may occur during lithium treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because anaphylaxis, seizures, and pulmonary edema are not typically associated side effects of lithium administration.

5. A client is receiving combination chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of an oncologic emergency?

A. Dry oral mucous membranes
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Temperature of 38.1Â°C (100.6Â°F)
D. Anorexia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 38.1Â°C (100.6Â°F) can indicate an infection, which is considered an oncologic emergency in clients receiving chemotherapy due to the increased risk of sepsis in immunocompromised individuals. Dry oral mucous membranes (Choice A), nausea and vomiting (Choice B), and anorexia (Choice D) are common side effects of chemotherapy but do not typically indicate an oncologic emergency requiring immediate intervention.