Nursing Elites

1. While caring for a client receiving an opioid analgesic for pain management, which assessment should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Monitor the client's urinary output.
• B. Check the client's blood pressure.
• C. Assess the client for constipation.
• D. Monitor the client's respiratory rate.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's respiratory rate. When a client is receiving opioids, the priority assessment is the respiratory rate since opioids can lead to respiratory depression. Monitoring urinary output, blood pressure, and constipation are also important but not the priority in this scenario.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client with schizophrenia. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure: 102/56 mm Hg.
• B. Heart rate: 95/min.
• C. Sore throat.
• D. WBC count 14,000/mm^3.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated WBC count should be reported to the provider as it may indicate an infection. Elevated white blood cell counts can be a sign of an underlying infection or inflammation. Monitoring and reporting abnormal laboratory values are essential for timely interventions. The other options, such as blood pressure, heart rate, and a sore throat, while important for overall assessment, are not directly related to the potential medical urgency indicated by an elevated WBC count.

3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving warfarin therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. INR 1.8
• B. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
• C. Platelets 175,000/mm³
• D. Potassium 3.8 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. An INR of 1.8 is below the therapeutic range for a client receiving warfarin, indicating a potential risk of blood clots. This value should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and possible adjustment of the warfarin dosage. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly relate to the effectiveness or safety of warfarin therapy in this scenario, making them less urgent to report.

4. What is the primary purpose of administering an antiemetic?

• A. To reduce nausea and vomiting
• B. To increase appetite
• C. To treat nausea caused by chemotherapy
• D. To treat allergic reactions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'To reduce nausea and vomiting.' Antiemetics are medications used to prevent or alleviate nausea and vomiting. While they may indirectly help with appetite by reducing the unpleasant symptoms that can lead to decreased food intake, their primary purpose is not to increase appetite (Choice B). Choice C, 'To treat nausea caused by chemotherapy,' is partly correct as antiemetics are commonly used to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea, but this is not their exclusive purpose. Choice D, 'To treat allergic reactions,' is incorrect as antiemetics are not primarily used for treating allergic reactions.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Polyuria
• B. Warm, dry skin
• C. Irritability
• D. Hyperventilation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Irritability is a common finding in clients with hypoglycemia due to decreased glucose levels in the brain. Polyuria (excessive urination) is not typically associated with hypoglycemia, but rather with hyperglycemia. Warm, dry skin is not a typical finding in hypoglycemia; instead, the skin may be cool and clammy. Hyperventilation is not a common finding in hypoglycemia; instead, shallow breathing or difficulty breathing may occur.

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