ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank
1. While caring for a client receiving an opioid analgesic for pain management, which assessment should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Monitor the client's urinary output.
- B. Check the client's blood pressure.
- C. Assess the client for constipation.
- D. Monitor the client's respiratory rate.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's respiratory rate. When a client is receiving opioids, the priority assessment is the respiratory rate since opioids can lead to respiratory depression. Monitoring urinary output, blood pressure, and constipation are also important but not the priority in this scenario.
2. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with a full glass of water in the morning.
- B. Monitor your blood pressure daily while taking this medication.
- C. Take this medication at bedtime to prevent nocturia.
- D. Avoid taking this medication with food.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to take furosemide with a full glass of water in the morning. Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause increased urination, so it is best taken earlier in the day to avoid disrupting sleep with nocturia. Choice B is not the priority instruction for furosemide. Choice C is incorrect as taking furosemide at bedtime can lead to nocturia, which is undesirable. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide can be taken with or without food.
3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
- B. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
- C. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L
- D. Serum creatinine 3.0 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 3.0 mg/dL indicates impaired kidney function, which is a concern when prescribing spironolactone as it can further affect renal function. Elevated serum creatinine levels may suggest decreased renal clearance of spironolactone, leading to potential toxicity. Potassium, calcium, and magnesium levels are within normal ranges and not directly related to spironolactone therapy. Therefore, the nurse should report the elevated serum creatinine level to the provider for further evaluation and possible dosage adjustment.
4. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. You should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
- B. You should monitor for signs of infection.
- C. Take this medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
- D. Take this medication with a full glass of water.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include when teaching a client taking clopidogrel is to monitor for signs of infection. Clopidogrel affects platelet levels and can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial because a compromised immune system can make the client more susceptible to infections. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because clopidogrel is not directly linked to alcohol restrictions, food requirements, or specific water intake instructions.
5. A client with a new prescription for furosemide should increase intake of which of the following?
- A. You should take this medication on an empty stomach.
- B. You should increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- C. You should take this medication at bedtime.
- D. You should avoid taking this medication with food.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'You should increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.' Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, which means it can lead to low potassium levels in the body. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods helps counteract this effect. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide should not necessarily be taken on an empty stomach, at bedtime, or specifically avoided with food.
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