Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about ergonomic principles. Which of the following actions by the nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. Stands with feet shoulder-width apart when lifting a client up in bed.
• B. Raises the client's knees before pulling the client up in bed.
• C. Uses a mechanical lift to move a client from bed to chair.
• D. Places a gait belt around the client's waist before assisting the client to stand.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Using a mechanical lift is an appropriate ergonomic technique as it reduces the risk of injury to both the nurse and the client by promoting safe client handling practices. Choice A is incorrect as standing with feet shoulder-width apart provides better balance and stability during lifting. Choice B is incorrect as raising the client's knees is not directly related to ergonomic principles. Choice D is incorrect as placing a gait belt around the client's waist is a safety measure but does not specifically demonstrate an understanding of ergonomic principles.

2. Which of the following lab values should the nurse monitor for a patient receiving heparin therapy?

• A. Monitor platelet count
• B. Monitor PT/INR
• C. Monitor aPTT
• D. Monitor CBC

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT for a patient receiving heparin therapy. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to assess and adjust heparin dosage to ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. Monitoring the aPTT helps in preventing both clotting and bleeding complications. Platelet count (Choice A) is important to monitor for patients receiving antiplatelet therapy, not heparin. PT/INR (Choice B) is typically monitored for patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Monitoring the complete blood count (CBC) (Choice D) is essential for various conditions but is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. The FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 minutes. What condition should the nurse suspect?

• A. Maternal fever.
• B. Fetal anemia.
• C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
• D. Chorioamnionitis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the FHR baseline of 100/min for the past 15 minutes indicates fetal bradycardia, which can be caused by maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in fetal bradycardia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia in the fetus rather than bradycardia. Fetal anemia (Choice B) is more likely to manifest as tachycardia due to compensation for decreased oxygen delivery. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) may lead to fetal tachycardia as a sign of fetal distress, not bradycardia.

4. What is the primary purpose of administering insulin to a patient with diabetes?

• A. Regulate blood glucose levels
• B. Increase metabolism
• C. Prevent complications
• D. Promote insulin sensitivity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Regulate blood glucose levels.' Administering insulin to a patient with diabetes helps regulate blood glucose levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose into cells, thereby lowering high blood sugar levels. This process aims to prevent hyperglycemia and its associated complications. Choice B, 'Increase metabolism,' is incorrect as the primary role of insulin is not to increase metabolism directly. Choice C, 'Prevent complications,' is partially correct as regulating blood glucose through insulin administration does help prevent complications associated with uncontrolled diabetes, but it is not the primary purpose. Choice D, 'Promote insulin sensitivity,' is incorrect as insulin itself is administered to compensate for the lack of endogenous insulin in diabetic patients, rather than to promote sensitivity to it.

5. A charge nurse is preparing to lead negotiations among nursing staff due to conflict about overtime requirements. Which of the following strategies should the nurse use to promote effective negotiation?

• A. Identify solutions prior to the negotiation.
• B. Focus on how to resolve the conflict.
• C. Attempt to understand both sides of the issue.
• D. Avoid personalizing the conflict.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In negotiating conflicts, it is crucial to attempt to understand both sides of the issue. This strategy helps the charge nurse gain insights into the perspectives and concerns of all parties involved, facilitating a more effective negotiation process. Choice A is not ideal as identifying solutions prior to negotiation may overlook important viewpoints or needs. Choice B is vague and does not provide a specific action plan for resolving the conflict. Choice D is incorrect as personalizing the conflict can lead to biased decision-making and hinder the negotiation process.

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