ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of the effectiveness of the treatment?
- A. Respiratory rate of 24/min
- B. White blood cell count of 15,000/mm3
- C. SpO2 of 95%
- D. Clear breath sounds
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clear breath sounds are an essential indicator of effective pneumonia treatment as they suggest resolution of the lung infection. A normal respiratory rate (A) indicates adequate breathing but does not directly reflect the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment. An elevated white blood cell count (B) is a sign of infection and may not decrease immediately with treatment. While maintaining an SpO2 of 95% (C) is crucial for oxygenation, it may not directly indicate the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment.
2. A client has had a nasogastric tube in place for 2 days. Which of the following findings indicates that the client has developed an adverse effect?
- A. Dry mucous membranes
- B. Polyuria
- C. Epistaxis
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Epistaxis.' Epistaxis (nosebleed) is a common adverse effect of prolonged nasogastric tube insertion due to irritation of the nasal mucosa. Dry mucous membranes (choice A) may indicate dehydration but are not a direct adverse effect of nasogastric tube insertion. Polyuria (choice B) is excessive urination and is not typically associated with nasogastric tube insertion. Diarrhea (choice D) is also not a common adverse effect of having a nasogastric tube in place.
3. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following food choices by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich
- B. Grilled chicken and rice
- C. Tomato soup with saltine crackers
- D. Baked fish and steamed vegetables
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, baked fish and steamed vegetables. These food choices are low in potassium and phosphorus, which is important for clients with chronic kidney disease to manage their condition effectively. Grilled chicken and rice (choice B) may be high in phosphorus, tomato soup with saltine crackers (choice C) is high in sodium, and a peanut butter and jelly sandwich (choice A) contains high levels of potassium, all of which are not ideal choices for individuals with chronic kidney disease.
4. How should a healthcare professional monitor for infection in a patient with a central line?
- A. Check the central line dressing daily
- B. Monitor for signs of redness
- C. Check for abnormal breath sounds
- D. Monitor temperature
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct answer: A. Checking the central line dressing daily is crucial to monitor for signs of infection around the insertion site. This practice helps in early detection of any changes such as redness, swelling, or discharge, which are indicators of a potential infection. Monitoring for signs of redness (choice B) is limited as redness alone may not always indicate an infection; other symptoms like discharge and tenderness should also be observed. Checking for abnormal breath sounds (choice C) is not directly related to monitoring central line infections. Monitoring temperature (choice D) is important for detecting systemic signs of infection but may not specifically indicate an infection related to the central line site.
5. A client has a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication at bedtime to prevent dizziness.
- B. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- C. Take this medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
- D. This medication can increase your blood pressure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include for a client prescribed hydrochlorothiazide is to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion, so increasing potassium-rich foods helps prevent hypokalemia. Option A is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is usually taken in the morning to prevent diuresis at night. Option C is not necessary as hydrochlorothiazide can be taken with or without food. Option D is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is used to lower blood pressure, not increase it.
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