Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of the effectiveness of the treatment?

• A. Respiratory rate of 24/min
• B. White blood cell count of 15,000/mm3
• C. SpO2 of 95%
• D. Clear breath sounds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clear breath sounds are an essential indicator of effective pneumonia treatment as they suggest resolution of the lung infection. A normal respiratory rate (A) indicates adequate breathing but does not directly reflect the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment. An elevated white blood cell count (B) is a sign of infection and may not decrease immediately with treatment. While maintaining an SpO2 of 95% (C) is crucial for oxygenation, it may not directly indicate the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect to be elevated?

• A. Serum sodium.
• B. Serum calcium.
• C. Serum glucose.
• D. Serum amylase.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Serum amylase levels are typically elevated in clients with acute pancreatitis as it is an enzyme released by the pancreas. Elevated serum sodium, calcium, or glucose levels are not typically associated with acute pancreatitis. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Polyuria
• B. Warm, dry skin
• C. Irritability
• D. Hyperventilation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Irritability is a common finding in clients with hypoglycemia due to decreased glucose levels in the brain. Polyuria (excessive urination) is not typically associated with hypoglycemia, but rather with hyperglycemia. Warm, dry skin is not a typical finding in hypoglycemia; instead, the skin may be cool and clammy. Hyperventilation is not a common finding in hypoglycemia; instead, shallow breathing or difficulty breathing may occur.

4. A client is receiving intermittent tube feedings and is at risk for aspiration. What should the nurse identify as a risk factor?

• A. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial.
• B. History of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
• C. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula.
• D. Receiving a feeding in a supine position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Gastroesophageal reflux disease increases the risk of aspiration due to the potential for regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus and airways. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to an increased risk of aspiration. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial may indicate delayed gastric emptying but is not a direct risk factor for aspiration. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula or receiving a feeding in a supine position are not specific risk factors for aspiration unless they contribute to reflux or other related issues.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has generalized petechiae and ecchymoses. The nurse should expect a prescription for which of the following laboratory tests?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Potassium level
• C. Creatinine clearance
• D. Prealbumin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count. Platelet count helps assess clotting abnormalities that could cause petechiae and ecchymoses. Petechiae and ecchymoses are often associated with bleeding disorders, so it is crucial to evaluate the platelet count to determine if there is a deficiency in platelets. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because potassium level, creatinine clearance, and prealbumin do not directly relate to assessing clotting abnormalities associated with petechiae and ecchymoses.

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