ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has dehydration. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
- A. Monitor the client's fluid intake.
- B. Provide the client with a high-protein diet.
- C. Encourage the client to ambulate frequently.
- D. Administer 0.45% sodium chloride IV.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dehydration is to administer 0.45% sodium chloride IV. This solution helps correct fluid imbalance by providing the necessary electrolytes. Restricting fluid intake (Choice A) is not appropriate for dehydration as the client needs adequate fluids to rehydrate. Providing a high-protein diet (Choice B) is not directly related to correcting dehydration. Encouraging the client to ambulate frequently (Choice C) is beneficial for overall health but does not address the issue of dehydration directly.
2. A healthcare provider is preparing education material for a client. Which technique should the healthcare provider use in creating the material?
- A. Emphasize important information using bold lettering.
- B. Use a 7th-grade reading level.
- C. Avoid using cartoons in the material.
- D. Use words with three or four syllables.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Using a 7th-grade reading level is the most effective technique when creating education material for clients because it ensures that the content is easily understood by a wide range of individuals. Option A, emphasizing important information with bold lettering, may help draw attention but doesn't guarantee comprehension. Option C, avoiding cartoons, is not necessarily a universal rule and can sometimes make material more engaging. Option D, using words with three or four syllables, can make the material more complex and harder to understand, defeating the purpose of effective communication in education material.
3. A nurse is administering digoxin 0.125 mg Po to an adult client. For which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium level 4.2 mEq/L
- B. Apical pulse 58/min
- C. Digoxin level 1 ng/ml
- D. Constipation for 2 days
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. An apical pulse below 60/min indicates bradycardia, a potential sign of digoxin toxicity. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and possible adjustment of the digoxin dose. Choice A, a potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L, is within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and does not indicate toxicity. Choice C, a digoxin level of 1 ng/ml, is within the therapeutic range (0.5-2 ng/ml) and is not suggestive of toxicity. Choice D, constipation for 2 days, is not directly related to digoxin administration and would not require an immediate report to the provider.
4. A nurse is preparing to assess a 2-week-old newborn. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- A. Obtain the newborn's body temperature using a tympanic thermometer
- B. Pull the pinna of the infant's ear forward before inserting the probe
- C. Auscultate the newborn's apical pulse for 60 seconds
- D. Measure the newborn's head circumference over the eyebrows and below the occipital prominence
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auscultate the newborn's apical pulse for 60 seconds. When assessing a newborn, it is essential to auscultate the apical pulse for a full 60 seconds to accurately determine their heart rate. This method allows for a more precise measurement, considering the variability in heart rates in newborns. Choice A is incorrect because tympanic thermometers are not typically used for newborns due to their ear canals being small and not fully developed. Choice B is incorrect as pulling the pinna forward is not necessary for assessing the apical pulse. Choice D is incorrect as measuring head circumference involves a different assessment and is not relevant to determining the heart rate of a newborn.
5. A client is receiving opioid analgesics for pain management. Which of the following assessments is the priority?
- A. Monitor the client's blood pressure.
- B. Check the client's urinary output.
- C. Monitor the client's respiratory rate.
- D. Assess the client's pain level.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the client's respiratory rate. When a client is receiving opioid analgesics, the priority assessment is monitoring respiratory rate. Opioids can cause respiratory depression, so it is crucial to assess the client's breathing to detect any signs of respiratory distress promptly. Checking the client's blood pressure (Choice A) and urinary output (Choice B) are important assessments too, but they are not the priority when compared to ensuring adequate respiratory function. Assessing the client's pain level (Choice D) is essential for overall care but is not the priority assessment when the client is on opioids, as respiratory status takes precedence.
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