ATI RN TEST BANK

ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 1

A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed warfarin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse review to evaluate the therapeutic effect of this medication?

    A. aPTT

    B. INR

    C. Serum glucose

    D. Bilirubin

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: INR. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is the most reliable test for evaluating the therapeutic effects of warfarin therapy. INR measures the clotting ability of the blood and helps determine if the dosage of warfarin is within the therapeutic range. Choice A, aPTT, is not typically used to monitor the effects of warfarin. Choice C, Serum glucose, and choice D, Bilirubin, are not relevant to monitoring the therapeutic effect of warfarin.

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is prescribed acetaminophen for pain. Which of the following lab values should the nurse monitor to identify an adverse effect of the medication?

  • A. Serum glucose
  • B. Serum creatinine
  • C. Serum potassium
  • D. Serum bilirubin

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum creatinine. Acetaminophen is metabolized by the liver, so serum creatinine levels should be monitored for potential hepatotoxicity. Monitoring serum creatinine can help detect liver damage, a potential adverse effect of acetaminophen. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because serum glucose is not directly affected by acetaminophen, serum potassium is not typically monitored for acetaminophen adverse effects, and serum bilirubin is more related to bile metabolism rather than acetaminophen-induced hepatotoxicity.

A nurse is caring for a client receiving theophylline for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following client findings indicates the need for immediate intervention?

  • A. Productive cough
  • B. Drowsiness
  • C. Vomiting
  • D. Polyuria

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Polyuria is a sign of theophylline toxicity and requires immediate intervention. Theophylline toxicity can lead to serious complications, and polyuria is a concerning symptom that indicates the need for urgent medical attention. Productive cough, drowsiness, and vomiting are common side effects of theophylline but are not typically indicative of immediate life-threatening issues like polyuria in the context of theophylline toxicity.

A nurse is caring for a client prescribed digoxin. Which of the following should alert the nurse to possible digitalis toxicity?

  • A. Anorexia and weakness
  • B. Hyperactivity and hunger
  • C. Tachycardia and increased urination
  • D. Polyphagia and polydipsia

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anorexia and weakness. These symptoms are early indicators of potential digitalis toxicity. Anorexia refers to a loss of appetite, which can be a sign of toxicity, and weakness can indicate an issue with digoxin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperactivity and hunger, tachycardia and increased urination, as well as polyphagia and polydipsia are not typically associated with digitalis toxicity.

A healthcare professional is caring for a client receiving gentamicin therapy. Which of the following client assessments is a priority for the healthcare professional to monitor for an adverse effect of this medication?

  • A. Urinary output
  • B. Serum glucose
  • C. Respiratory rate
  • D. Hearing acuity

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hearing acuity. Gentamicin is known to be ototoxic, which means it can cause damage to the auditory system leading to hearing loss. Monitoring hearing acuity is crucial to detect early signs of hearing impairment. Monitoring urinary output (choice A) is important for assessing kidney function but is not directly related to gentamicin's adverse effects. Monitoring serum glucose (choice B) and respiratory rate (choice C) are not specifically associated with gentamicin therapy.

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