Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. At what angle should the nurse administer the medication using the ventrogluteal site?

• A. a 45-degree angle
• B. a 60-degree angle
• C. a 75-degree angle
• D. a 90-degree angle

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Intramuscular injections in the ventrogluteal site should be administered at a 90-degree angle. This angle ensures that the medication reaches the muscle tissue effectively. Angles less than 90 degrees can cause subcutaneous injection instead of intramuscular, leading to slower absorption of the medication. Angles greater than 90 degrees risk hitting bone or nerves, causing unnecessary pain or injury. Therefore, the correct angle for administering intramuscular injections in the ventrogluteal site is 90 degrees.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medication class benzodiazepines. The nurse would use caution when administering benzodiazepines to which of the below clients?

• A. A client with glaucoma
• B. A client with renal failure
• C. A client with hypertension
• D. A client with insomnia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Benzodiazepines should be used cautiously in clients with glaucoma because these medications can increase intraocular pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because renal failure, hypertension, and insomnia are not contraindications for administering benzodiazepines.

3. A nurse is caring for a client taking ciprofloxacin for an infection. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the client education?

• A. Constipation
• B. Tendon rupture
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Nasal congestion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tendon rupture. Ciprofloxacin belongs to the fluoroquinolone class of antibiotics, which is associated with the adverse effect of tendon rupture. Tendon rupture is a severe but rare side effect that can occur with the use of ciprofloxacin. Educating the client about this potential adverse effect is crucial to promote awareness and early recognition of symptoms, such as tendon pain, swelling, or inflammation. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use and are less relevant for client education in this scenario.

4. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed digoxin. Which of the following should alert the nurse to possible digitalis toxicity?

• A. Anorexia and weakness
• B. Hyperactivity and hunger
• C. Tachycardia and increased urination
• D. Polyphagia and polydipsia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anorexia and weakness. These symptoms are early indicators of potential digitalis toxicity. Anorexia refers to a loss of appetite, which can be a sign of toxicity, and weakness can indicate an issue with digoxin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hyperactivity and hunger, tachycardia and increased urination, as well as polyphagia and polydipsia are not typically associated with digitalis toxicity.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the client's history before administering opioid pain medication. Which of the following conditions is a contraindication to opioid therapy?

• A. Asthma
• B. Renal failure
• C. Diabetes mellitus
• D. Obesity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Renal failure is a contraindication to opioid therapy due to the risk of drug accumulation and toxicity. Asthma, diabetes mellitus, and obesity are not contraindications to opioid therapy. Asthma is a respiratory condition that can be managed alongside opioids, diabetes mellitus and obesity do not directly contraindicate opioid therapy.

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