Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. At what angle should the nurse administer the medication using the ventrogluteal site?

• A. a 45-degree angle
• B. a 60-degree angle
• C. a 75-degree angle
• D. a 90-degree angle

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Intramuscular injections in the ventrogluteal site should be administered at a 90-degree angle. This angle ensures that the medication reaches the muscle tissue effectively. Angles less than 90 degrees can cause subcutaneous injection instead of intramuscular, leading to slower absorption of the medication. Angles greater than 90 degrees risk hitting bone or nerves, causing unnecessary pain or injury. Therefore, the correct angle for administering intramuscular injections in the ventrogluteal site is 90 degrees.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer nitroglycerin ointment to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Apply the ointment to the client's hairless chest
• B. Rub the ointment gently into the skin
• C. Cover the applied ointment with a transparent dressing
• D. Massage the ointment into the skin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action is to apply the nitroglycerin ointment to a hairless area of the client's chest, back, or upper arms. This allows for better absorption of the medication. Choice B is incorrect because rubbing the ointment gently into the skin may be appropriate, but the primary action is to ensure application on a hairless area. Choice C is incorrect as covering the ointment with a transparent dressing is not a standard practice for nitroglycerin ointment administration. Choice D is incorrect because massaging the ointment into the skin is not recommended, as it can alter absorption rates.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the client's history before administering opioid pain medication. Which of the following conditions is a contraindication to opioid therapy?

• A. Asthma
• B. Renal failure
• C. Diabetes mellitus
• D. Obesity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Renal failure is a contraindication to opioid therapy due to the risk of drug accumulation and toxicity. Asthma, diabetes mellitus, and obesity are not contraindications to opioid therapy. Asthma is a respiratory condition that can be managed alongside opioids, diabetes mellitus and obesity do not directly contraindicate opioid therapy.

4. A client is prescribed digoxin 0.125 mg daily for heart failure. Which of the following client reports should concern the nurse as a sign of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Visual disturbances
• C. Weight gain
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Visual disturbances such as blurred vision or seeing halos around lights are common signs of digoxin toxicity. Increased appetite, weight gain, and constipation are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Weight gain could be a sign of worsening heart failure rather than digoxin toxicity. Increased appetite and constipation are not specific signs of digoxin toxicity and are less likely to be related.

5. A client is prescribed propranolol. Which of the following client history findings would require the nurse to clarify this medication prescription?

• A. Asthma
• B. Hypertension
• C. Tachydysrhythmias
• D. Urolithiasis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Asthma. Clients with asthma should avoid Beta2 Blockade agents like propranolol as they can lead to bronchoconstriction, potentially worsening asthma symptoms. Choice B, hypertension, is not a contraindication for propranolol; in fact, it is commonly prescribed for hypertension. Choice C, tachydysrhythmias, is often an indication for propranolol due to its antiarrhythmic properties. Choice D, urolithiasis, does not directly impact the use of propranolol.

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