ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 1
1. A healthcare professional is caring for a client receiving gentamicin therapy. Which of the following client assessments is a priority for the healthcare professional to monitor for an adverse effect of this medication?
- A. Urinary output
- B. Serum glucose
- C. Respiratory rate
- D. Hearing acuity
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hearing acuity. Gentamicin is known to be ototoxic, which means it can cause damage to the auditory system leading to hearing loss. Monitoring hearing acuity is crucial to detect early signs of hearing impairment. Monitoring urinary output (choice A) is important for assessing kidney function but is not directly related to gentamicin's adverse effects. Monitoring serum glucose (choice B) and respiratory rate (choice C) are not specifically associated with gentamicin therapy.
2. A client has been prescribed metoclopramide. Which of the following should the nurse include in client education regarding this medication?
- A. Notify your provider if you experience restlessness or spasms of the face or neck
- B. This medication can cause insomnia
- C. Decrease your fluid intake while taking this medication
- D. This medication can cause urinary frequency
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Notify your provider if you experience restlessness or spasms of the face or neck.' Metoclopramide can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms such as restlessness or facial spasms, which are serious and require immediate medical attention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Insomnia is not a common side effect of metoclopramide. Increasing fluid intake is usually recommended to prevent dehydration caused by potential side effects like diarrhea. Urinary frequency is not a typical side effect associated with metoclopramide.
3. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed clopidogrel. Which of the following client histories is a contraindication to the administration of this medication?
- A. Recent surgery
- B. Peptic ulcer disease
- C. Bleeding disorder
- D. Uncontrolled hypertension
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Uncontrolled hypertension. Clopidogrel should not be administered to clients with uncontrolled hypertension due to the increased risk of bleeding. Recent surgery, peptic ulcer disease, and bleeding disorders are not absolute contraindications for clopidogrel administration.
4. A healthcare provider has just administered a wrong medication to a client. Which of the following actions should the provider take next?
- A. No action is needed
- B. Report error to the provider
- C. Complete an institutional incident report
- D. Inform the client that the wrong medication was given
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the scenario where a wrong medication has been administered, it is crucial for the healthcare provider to report the error to the provider. This action is essential to ensure that the provider is informed promptly, corrective measures are taken, and the client's well-being is safeguarded. Choice A is incorrect as taking no action could lead to serious consequences and compromise patient safety. Choice C, while important, should come after reporting the error to the provider. Choice D is not the immediate priority as the provider should first focus on addressing the error internally.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed amoxicillin. Which of the following client history findings requires the nurse to clarify the medication prescription?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Peptic ulcer disease
- C. Asthma
- D. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients with a history of asthma should avoid amoxicillin due to potential hypersensitivity reactions. Amoxicillin can trigger asthma exacerbations in some individuals. Hypertension (choice A), peptic ulcer disease (choice B), and gastroesophageal reflux disease (choice D) are not contraindications for amoxicillin use, so they do not require the nurse to clarify the medication prescription in this case.
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