ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet
1. A client with thrombocytopenia is receiving care from a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?
- A. Encourage the client to floss daily.
- B. Remove fresh flowers from the client's room.
- C. Provide the client with a stool softener.
- D. Avoid serving the client raw vegetables.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with thrombocytopenia, the platelet count is low, leading to a risk of bleeding. Providing a stool softener is essential to prevent constipation and straining during bowel movements, which can reduce the risk of bleeding episodes. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is a good oral hygiene practice but is not directly related to thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is related to infection control but does not address the specific risk of bleeding in thrombocytopenia. Avoiding serving the client raw vegetables (Choice D) is important in clients with neutropenia to prevent infections, not in thrombocytopenia.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 12 hr postpartum and has a third-degree perineal laceration. The client reports not having a bowel movement for 4 days. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?
- A. Bisacodyl 10 mg rectal suppository.
- B. Magnesium hydroxide 30 ml PO.
- C. Famotidine 20 mg PO.
- D. Loperamide 4 mg PO.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should administer Bisacodyl 10 mg rectal suppository. Bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative that promotes bowel movement, which is appropriate for a postpartum client experiencing constipation. Magnesium hydroxide (choice B) is an antacid and not indicated for constipation. Famotidine (choice C) is an H2 receptor antagonist used for reducing stomach acid production, not for constipation. Loperamide (choice D) is an antidiarrheal agent and would worsen constipation in this case.
3. A client with heart failure at risk for pulmonary edema should receive which intervention to improve oxygenation?
- A. Place the client in a supine position.
- B. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
- C. Elevate the client's legs when in bed.
- D. Administer oxygen via non-rebreather mask.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering oxygen via a non-rebreather mask is the appropriate intervention for a client at risk for pulmonary edema as it helps improve oxygenation by delivering a high concentration of oxygen. Placing the client in a supine position can exacerbate pulmonary edema by increasing venous return to the heart, leading to fluid overload. Encouraging increased fluid intake is contraindicated in clients with heart failure and at risk for pulmonary edema, as it can worsen fluid accumulation. Elevating the client's legs when in bed is more appropriate for clients with conditions such as venous insufficiency or edema in the lower extremities, not for pulmonary edema.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is receiving opioid analgesics. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 94%
- B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
- C. Respiratory rate of 12/min
- D. Heart rate of 88/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 12/min may indicate respiratory depression, a potential side effect of opioid analgesics. Respiratory depression can be a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in clients receiving opioids to prevent adverse events. Oxygen saturation, blood pressure, and heart rate are important parameters to assess, but a low respiratory rate is a more critical finding that warrants immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?
- A. Increased hoarseness
- B. Serum calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL
- C. Respiratory rate of 18/min
- D. Urinary output of 60 mL in 2 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Serum calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL.' A low serum calcium level indicates hypocalcemia, which is a potential complication of thyroidectomy that can lead to life-threatening consequences, such as tetany or laryngospasm. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to report this finding promptly to the provider for timely intervention. Choices A, C, and D are important assessments following a thyroidectomy but are not as critical as detecting and addressing hypocalcemia, which can have serious implications for the client's health.
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