ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Productive cough with green sputum
- B. Temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F)
- C. Crackles in the lung bases
- D. Oxygen saturation of 95%
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with pneumonia, crackles in the lung bases can indicate fluid accumulation, worsening of the condition, or development of complications such as pulmonary edema. This finding should be reported to the provider promptly for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are common in clients with pneumonia and may not necessarily require immediate reporting unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms or vital sign abnormalities.
2. In the eighth month of pregnancy, what typically happens?
- A. fetal growth doubles
- B. neuron production increases
- C. the eyes, ears, nose, jaw, and neck form
- D. lanugo typically is shed
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the eighth month of pregnancy, lanugo typically is shed. Lanugo is the fine, downy hair that covers a fetus's body to help regulate body temperature while in the womb. By the eighth month, many fetuses shed this hair as they prepare for birth. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because fetal growth doubling, neuron production increasing, and the formation of eyes, ears, nose, jaw, and neck occur in earlier stages of pregnancy, not specifically in the eighth month.
3. What test measures the pressure in the arteries during the contraction and relaxation of the heart?
- A. Blood pressure test
- B. Electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG)
- C. Spirometry
- D. Pulse oximetry
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Blood pressure test.' This test measures the pressure in the arteries during the contraction (systolic) and relaxation (diastolic) phases of the heart, providing important information about heart health. Choice B, 'Electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG),' records the heart's electrical activity and is not specifically related to measuring arterial pressure. Choice C, 'Spirometry,' assesses lung function by measuring airflow. Choice D, 'Pulse oximetry,' measures oxygen saturation in the blood, not arterial pressure.
4. Which goal is most appropriate for a patient who has had a total hip replacement?
- A. The nurse will assist the patient in ambulating in the hall 2 times a day.
- B. The patient will walk 100 feet using a walker by the time of discharge.
- C. The patient will ambulate briskly on the treadmill by the time of discharge.
- D. The patient will ambulate independently by the time of discharge.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the most appropriate goal for a patient who has had a total hip replacement because it is specific, measurable, and achievable. Walking 100 feet using a walker is a realistic and individualized target for a patient in the recovery phase following hip surgery. Choices A, C, and D are not as suitable: Choice A does not specify a measurable distance or objective, Choice C sets a potentially unrealistic expectation for brisk ambulation on a treadmill, and Choice D lacks the specificity of the distance to be walked.
5. A client is following Seventh-Day Adventist dietary laws. Which of the following dietary guidelines should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Replace salt with pepper when seasoning food.
- B. Request that coffee is removed from meal trays.
- C. Offer pork with two meals per week.
- D. Provide a high-protein snack between meals.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Seventh-Day Adventists typically avoid stimulants like caffeine, so requesting that coffee be removed from meal trays is appropriate. Choice A is incorrect because it does not specifically relate to Seventh-Day Adventist dietary guidelines. Choice C is incorrect as pork is generally avoided in Seventh-Day Adventist dietary laws. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the specific dietary preferences of Seventh-Day Adventist clients.
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