ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A healthcare professional is preparing education material for a client. Which of the following techniques should the professional use in creating material?
- A. Emphasize important information using bold lettering.
- B. Use a 7th-grade reading level.
- C. Avoid using cartoons in the material.
- D. Use words with three or four syllables.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Use a 7th-grade reading level.' This ensures that the material is accessible to most clients by keeping the language simple and easy to understand. Emphasizing important information using bold lettering (Choice A) can be helpful but may not enhance overall readability. Avoiding cartoons (Choice C) is not a universal rule and can sometimes make the material more engaging. Using words with three or four syllables (Choice D) can make the material difficult to comprehend for many clients.
2. Which lab value should be monitored for a patient on warfarin therapy?
- A. Monitor INR
- B. Monitor potassium levels
- C. Monitor platelet count
- D. Monitor sodium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR for a patient on warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is crucial as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and safety of warfarin. INR stands for International Normalized Ratio, and it measures the blood's ability to clot. Monitoring potassium levels (Choice B) is not specific to warfarin therapy. Monitoring platelet count (Choice C) is important but not the primary lab value for assessing warfarin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice D) is not directly related to warfarin therapy.
3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion by increasing its excretion in the urine. Hypokalemia is a common and concerning side effect of furosemide therapy. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is less likely as furosemide tends to lower potassium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with furosemide use.
4. How should a healthcare provider monitor a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
- A. Monitor for leg swelling
- B. Encourage ambulation
- C. Check for redness
- D. Monitor oxygen saturation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct way for a healthcare provider to monitor a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to check for leg swelling. Leg swelling is a common symptom of DVT and monitoring for this sign is crucial for early detection and intervention. Encouraging ambulation may be beneficial for preventing DVT but is not the recommended method for monitoring an existing condition. Checking for redness may be useful in cases of superficial thrombophlebitis but is not specific to DVT. Monitoring oxygen saturation is more relevant for respiratory or cardiovascular conditions, not for DVT.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Alopecia
- B. Weight gain of 1 kg (2.2 lb) in 24 hours
- C. White blood cell count of 6,000/mm³
- D. Temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A weight gain of 1 kg (2.2 lb) in 24 hours is concerning as it indicates fluid retention, which can be a sign of complications in clients receiving chemotherapy. Rapid weight gain can be associated with conditions like fluid overload or electrolyte imbalances, which need prompt medical attention. Choices A, C, and D are not typically immediate concerns related to chemotherapy. Alopecia (choice A) is a common side effect of chemotherapy, a white blood cell count of 6,000/mm³ (choice C) falls within the normal range, and a temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) (choice D) is slightly elevated but not a critical finding in this context.
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