ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A nurse is preparing to perform postmortem care for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Place the client's dentures in a labeled container
- B. Remove the client's IV lines
- C. Place the client's body in a semi-fowler's position
- D. Lower the client's head of the bed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to perform postmortem care is to remove the client's IV lines. This step is essential to help maintain the dignity and appearance of the body. Placing the client's dentures in a labeled container (Choice A) is not a priority during postmortem care as the focus is on the body's preparation. While positioning the body in a semi-fowler's position (Choice C) or lowering the client's head of the bed (Choice D) are common practices for living clients to prevent aspiration, they are not necessary after death. Therefore, the immediate action of removing IV lines is most appropriate in this situation.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a gastric bypass. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 78/min
- B. Oxygen saturation of 95%
- C. Urine output of 30 mL/hr
- D. Serosanguineous wound drainage
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a postoperative client, a urine output of 30 mL/hr is a concerning finding as it indicates oliguria, which may suggest dehydration or kidney impairment. Adequate urine output is essential for monitoring renal function and overall fluid status. A heart rate of 78/min is within the normal range for an adult. An oxygen saturation of 95% is acceptable and indicates adequate oxygenation. Serosanguineous wound drainage is expected in the early postoperative period and is not a cause for immediate concern unless it becomes excessive or changes character.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?
- A. Lipsmacking
- B. Agranulocytosis
- C. Clang association
- D. Alopecia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lipsmacking is a common sign of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of haloperidol. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements such as lipsmacking, tongue protrusion, and facial grimacing. Agranulocytosis (choice B) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specifically associated with haloperidol. Clang association (choice C) is a form of disorganized speech seen in conditions like schizophrenia but is not a side effect of haloperidol. Alopecia (choice D) refers to hair loss and is not a common long-term side effect of haloperidol.
4. What is the best intervention for a patient with respiratory distress?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Administer bronchodilators
- C. Administer IV fluids
- D. Administer corticosteroids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer oxygen. In respiratory distress, the priority intervention is to improve oxygenation. Administering oxygen helps increase the oxygen levels in the blood, supporting respiratory function. While bronchodilators may be used in specific respiratory conditions like asthma or COPD, they are not the primary intervention for respiratory distress. IV fluids are not indicated as the initial treatment for respiratory distress unless there is an underlying cause such as dehydration. Corticosteroids may be used in certain respiratory conditions to reduce inflammation, but they are not the first-line intervention for acute respiratory distress.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Keep the head of the bed elevated to 15 degrees.
- B. Change the feeding bag every 48 hours.
- C. Administer the feeding through a large-bore syringe.
- D. Flush the tube with 0.9% sodium chloride every 4 hours.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take is to flush the tube with 0.9% sodium chloride every 4 hours. This helps maintain patency and prevents clogs during enteral feedings. Keeping the head of the bed elevated to 15 degrees (Choice A) is important for preventing aspiration but is not directly related to tube care. Changing the feeding bag every 48 hours (Choice B) is not a standard practice as the bag should be changed every 24 hours to prevent bacterial growth. Administering the feeding through a large-bore syringe (Choice C) is incorrect as enteral feedings should be given through an appropriate feeding pump for accuracy and safety.
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