a nurse is assessing a client who has a stool culture that is positive for clostridium difficile which of the following infection control precautions
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam

1. A client who has a positive stool culture for Clostridium difficile should be placed in which type of room for infection control purposes?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Placing the client in a private room is the appropriate infection control measure for C. difficile to prevent the spread of infection. While wearing a face shield may be necessary for procedures that generate splashes or sprays, it is not the primary precaution for C. difficile. Negative pressure rooms are typically used for airborne infections, not for C. difficile. Using an alcohol-based hand rub is important for hand hygiene but is not specific to managing C. difficile infection.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client with schizophrenia. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated WBC count should be reported to the provider as it may indicate an infection. Elevated white blood cell counts can be a sign of an underlying infection or inflammation. Monitoring and reporting abnormal laboratory values are essential for timely interventions. The other options, such as blood pressure, heart rate, and a sore throat, while important for overall assessment, are not directly related to the potential medical urgency indicated by an elevated WBC count.

3. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement to include when teaching a client prescribed with lisinopril is that they should avoid using salt substitutes while taking this medication. Lisinopril can cause hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Therefore, using salt substitutes that contain potassium can worsen this condition. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because lisinopril is not typically associated with causing a dry cough or a slow heart rate, and increasing potassium intake can be harmful in the presence of lisinopril-induced hyperkalemia.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse on managing hypoglycemia. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Consume 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate. Consuming 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as glucose tablets or juice, helps raise blood glucose levels quickly in cases of hypoglycemia. Choice A is incorrect because avoiding carbohydrate-rich foods during hypoglycemia can worsen the condition. Choice C is incorrect as drinking water does not effectively raise blood glucose levels. Choice D is incorrect as eating a snack before exercising is more related to preventing exercise-induced hypoglycemia, not managing hypoglycemia.

5. A nurse is administering digoxin 0.125 mg Po to an adult client. For which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An apical pulse below 60/min indicates bradycardia, a potential sign of digoxin toxicity. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and possible adjustment of the digoxin dose. Choice A, a potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L, is within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and does not indicate toxicity. Choice C, a digoxin level of 1 ng/ml, is within the therapeutic range (0.5-2 ng/ml) and is not suggestive of toxicity. Choice D, constipation for 2 days, is not directly related to digoxin administration and would not require an immediate report to the provider.

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