Nursing Elites

1. What lab value should a healthcare provider monitor for a patient on warfarin therapy?

• A. Potassium
• B. PT/INR
• C. Sodium
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: PT/INR. When a patient is on warfarin therapy, healthcare providers monitor the PT/INR levels to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment and assess the risk of bleeding. Monitoring potassium, sodium, or calcium levels is not directly related to warfarin therapy and would not provide the necessary information needed to manage the medication effectively.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for furosemide. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following electrolyte imbalances?

• A. Hypernatremia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Hypomagnesemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause potassium loss leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial as low potassium can result in various complications like cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hypernatremia is high sodium levels, which are not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypercalcemia is elevated calcium levels and hypomagnesemia is low magnesium levels, which are not the primary electrolyte imbalances associated with furosemide.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Passing small clots in the urine.
• B. Continuous bladder irrigation.
• C. Red-tinged urine with numerous clots.
• D. Urine output of 50 mL/hr.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Red-tinged urine with numerous clots. This finding should be reported because it indicates excessive bleeding following a TURP procedure. Passing small clots in the urine (choice A) is expected post-TURP. Continuous bladder irrigation (choice B) is a standard procedure after TURP to prevent clot retention. Urine output of 50 mL/hr (choice D) is within the expected range postoperatively and does not indicate a complication.

4. A client is 1 day postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent respiratory complications?

• A. Instruct the client to avoid deep breathing exercises
• B. Encourage the use of an incentive spirometer
• C. Assist the client with ambulation every 2 hours
• D. Apply sequential compression devices (SCDs)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the use of an incentive spirometer is crucial for preventing respiratory complications postoperatively, such as atelectasis. Instructing the client to avoid deep breathing exercises (choice A) is incorrect as deep breathing exercises help prevent respiratory complications. Assisting with ambulation every 2 hours (choice C) is important for preventing other postoperative complications but not specifically respiratory ones. Applying sequential compression devices (SCDs) (choice D) is beneficial for preventing deep vein thrombosis but not directly related to respiratory complications.

5. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. You should weigh yourself once a week while taking this medication.
• B. You should eat foods rich in potassium while taking this medication.
• C. You should take this medication at bedtime.
• D. You should take this medication with food to avoid stomach upset.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients taking furosemide, a potassium-wasting diuretic, should increase their intake of potassium-rich foods to prevent hypokalemia. Option A is incorrect because weight monitoring is crucial for furosemide due to fluid loss. Option C is incorrect as furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent nighttime diuresis. Option D is incorrect because furosemide is best taken on an empty stomach for better absorption.

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