what lab value should a nurse monitor for a patient on warfarin therapy
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

1. What lab value should a healthcare provider monitor for a patient on warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: PT/INR. When a patient is on warfarin therapy, healthcare providers monitor the PT/INR levels to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment and assess the risk of bleeding. Monitoring potassium, sodium, or calcium levels is not directly related to warfarin therapy and would not provide the necessary information needed to manage the medication effectively.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to elevate the client's affected extremity when in bed. Elevating the extremity helps to reduce swelling and improve venous return in clients with DVT. Limiting fluid intake to 1500 mL per day (Choice A) is not directly related to managing DVT. Massaging the affected extremity (Choice B) can dislodge a clot and lead to serious complications. Applying cold packs (Choice C) can vasoconstrict blood vessels, potentially worsening the condition by reducing blood flow.

3. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing intervention for a patient experiencing hypoglycemia is to administer oral glucose. Oral glucose is usually sufficient for treating mild hypoglycemia and can be administered quickly and easily. Administering IV glucose (Choice A) is reserved for severe cases where the patient is unable to swallow or unconscious. Checking blood sugar in 15 minutes (Choice C) is important but providing glucose should come first. Providing a high-calorie snack (Choice D) may not be as rapidly effective as administering oral glucose in quickly raising blood sugar levels in a patient experiencing hypoglycemia.

4. A client with a new diagnosis of Graves' disease and a prescription for propylthiouracil (PTU) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because propylthiouracil (PTU) can increase the risk of infection. Therefore, the client should be aware that this medication may compromise their immune system, making them more susceptible to infections. Reporting any signs of infection promptly to the provider is crucial for timely intervention and management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because reporting a sore throat, assuming lifelong medication intake, or experiencing decreased appetite are not directly related to the medication's side effects or risks.

5. A nurse in the PACU is caring for a client who reports nausea. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first when a client reports nausea in the PACU is to turn the client on their side. This action helps prevent aspiration in a client with nausea, reducing the risk of choking or inhaling vomitus. Administering an analgesic (Choice B) is not the priority in this situation unless pain is the primary cause of nausea. While administering an antiemetic (Choice C) can help relieve nausea, it is not the initial action to prevent aspiration. Monitoring the client's vital signs (Choice D) is important but should come after ensuring the client's safety by turning them on their side.

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