Nursing Elites

1. What lab value should a healthcare provider monitor for a patient on warfarin therapy?

• A. Potassium
• B. PT/INR
• C. Sodium
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: PT/INR. When a patient is on warfarin therapy, healthcare providers monitor the PT/INR levels to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment and assess the risk of bleeding. Monitoring potassium, sodium, or calcium levels is not directly related to warfarin therapy and would not provide the necessary information needed to manage the medication effectively.

2. A client is 24 hr postoperative following an abdominal aortic aneurysm resection. Which of the following findings is a priority to report?

• A. Serosanguineous drainage on dressing
• B. Abdominal distention
• C. Absent bowel sounds
• D. Urine output of 20 mL/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Urine output less than 30 mL/hr is indicative of decreased kidney function, potentially due to inadequate perfusion or other complications post-aneurysm resection. This finding requires immediate reporting to prevent further complications such as acute kidney injury. Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing, abdominal distention, and absent bowel sounds are also important postoperative assessments but are not as critical as impaired kidney function in this scenario.

3. A nurse is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?

• A. Substernal retractions
• B. Hematuria
• C. Temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F)
• D. Sneezing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Substernal retractions indicate respiratory distress in a sickle-cell client, which can be a sign of acute chest syndrome. This condition is a serious complication of sickle-cell anemia characterized by chest pain, fever, cough, and shortness of breath. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial for timely intervention. Choice B, hematuria, is not typically associated with acute chest syndrome but may indicate other issues such as a urinary tract infection. Choice C, a temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F), is slightly elevated but not a specific indicator of acute chest syndrome. Choice D, sneezing, is not a typical symptom of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate reporting to the provider in this context.

4. A client has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. ''I will take this medication at bedtime to avoid nausea.''
• B. ''I should take this medication with a full glass of water in the morning.''
• C. ''I should avoid eating foods that contain iodine.''
• D. ''I should take this medication with food to improve absorption.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Metformin should be taken with a full glass of water in the morning to improve absorption and prevent gastrointestinal upset. Choice A is incorrect because metformin is not typically taken at bedtime. Choice C is unrelated to metformin therapy. Choice D is incorrect because metformin is actually better absorbed when taken with or after meals.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client who has heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
• B. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
• C. Heart rate of 60/min
• D. Sodium 140 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Heart rate of 60/min. A heart rate of 60/min is borderline bradycardia, which can be a sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia, so any further decrease in heart rate should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and D are within the normal range and not specifically related to potential digoxin toxicity, so they do not require immediate reporting.

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