a nurse is caring for a client who has crohns disease which of the following findings should the nurse expect
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ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has Crohn's disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bloody stools. Bloody stools are a common symptom of Crohn's disease, characterized by inflammation of the digestive tract. Weight gain (choice A) is less likely due to malabsorption issues associated with Crohn's disease. Urinary retention (choice C) is not directly related to Crohn's disease. Abdominal distention (choice D) may occur in Crohn's disease but is not as specific a finding as bloody stools.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An INR of 3.0 is elevated, indicating impaired blood clotting function, which poses a significant risk of bleeding in clients with cirrhosis. This finding should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A (Albumin 3.5 g/dL) is within the normal range and indicates adequate liver synthetic function, so it does not require immediate reporting. Choice B (Bilirubin 1.0 mg/dL) is also within the normal range and typically seen in clients without significant liver dysfunction, so it does not need urgent attention. Choice D (Ammonia 80 mcg/dL) is elevated, but it is not the priority finding in cirrhosis; elevated ammonia levels are associated with hepatic encephalopathy rather than increased bleeding risk.

3. A nurse is teaching a client who has heart failure about a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement to include when teaching a client about furosemide is that it may cause potassium levels to decrease. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia, emphasizing the importance of monitoring potassium levels. Option A is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent nighttime diuresis. Option B is incorrect as tinnitus, not ringing in the ears, is associated with furosemide use. Option D is wrong because while it is essential to monitor potassium levels, the client should be advised to consume foods high in potassium to prevent hypokalemia.

4. A client has a prescription for digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include for a client prescribed digoxin is to notify the provider if they experience nausea or visual changes, as these symptoms can indicate digoxin toxicity. Option A is incorrect because digoxin should be taken on an empty stomach for better absorption. Option B is incorrect as antacids can interfere with the absorption of digoxin. Option C is incorrect as taking digoxin based on heart rate alone is not appropriate.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Absent deep-tendon reflexes indicate magnesium toxicity and should be reported immediately. Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in clients with preeclampsia, but toxicity can lead to serious complications, including respiratory depression and loss of deep-tendon reflexes. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia, so they do not require immediate reporting.

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