Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of angina and reports chest pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula.
• B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
• C. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually.
• D. Notify the provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a 12-lead ECG. In a client with a history of angina and reporting chest pain, the priority action is to assess for myocardial infarction, which is best done through an ECG. Administering oxygen, nitroglycerin, or notifying the provider can be important actions but obtaining an ECG takes precedence in evaluating the client's condition.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has depression and reports taking St. John's Wort along with citalopram. The nurse should monitor the client for which condition as a result of an interaction between these substances?

• A. Tardive dyskinesia.
• B. Serotonin syndrome.
• C. Pseudoparkinsonism.
• D. Acute dystonia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serotonin syndrome. Serotonin syndrome can occur due to the interaction between citalopram, an SSRI, and St. John's Wort, an herbal supplement. Symptoms of serotonin syndrome include confusion, agitation, rapid heart rate, high blood pressure, dilated pupils, loss of muscle coordination, and sweating. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with the interaction between citalopram and St. John's Wort. Tardive dyskinesia is a movement disorder associated with long-term use of certain medications, pseudoparkinsonism is a side effect of certain antipsychotic medications, and acute dystonia is a movement disorder caused by certain medications like antipsychotics.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Fetal heart rate of 110/min
• B. 1+ pitting edema
• C. Blood pressure 138/80 mm Hg
• D. Urine output of 20 mL/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Urine output less than 30 mL/hr indicates decreased kidney perfusion, which is a serious complication of preeclampsia. Reporting this finding is crucial for prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority as fetal heart rate of 110/min, 1+ pitting edema, and blood pressure of 138/80 mm Hg are within normal limits for a client with preeclampsia at 38 weeks of gestation.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of a hemolytic transfusion reaction?

• A. Low back pain.
• B. Bradycardia.
• C. Chills.
• D. Distended neck veins.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Low back pain. Low back pain is a common sign of a hemolytic transfusion reaction, indicating the destruction of red blood cells. This finding requires immediate intervention as it can lead to serious complications such as renal failure. Bradycardia (choice B) is not typically associated with a hemolytic transfusion reaction. Chills (choice C) can be seen in febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reactions. Distended neck veins (choice D) are more indicative of fluid overload rather than a hemolytic reaction.

5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation. The nurse should report which of the following laboratory results to the provider?

• A. Hemoglobin 11.2 g/dL
• B. Platelet count 148,000/mm3
• C. Leukocyte count 9,000/mm3
• D. Blood glucose 80 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A hemoglobin level of 11.2 g/dL is below the normal range for a client who is 36 weeks gestation and should be reported to the provider.

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