ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank
1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Urine output of 80 mL/hr
- B. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg
- C. Serum creatinine 2.8 mg/dL
- D. Heart rate of 72/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum creatinine level of 2.8 mg/dL indicates impaired kidney function and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Elevated serum creatinine levels are indicative of decreased kidney function and potential progression of chronic kidney disease. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not signify immediate concerns related to kidney disease. Urine output of 80 mL/hr is appropriate, a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg is considered prehypertensive but not acutely concerning, and a heart rate of 72/min falls within the normal range.
2. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has acute kidney injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 15 mg/dL
- B. Urine output of 45 mL/hr
- C. Serum creatinine 3.5 mg/dL
- D. Calcium 9 mg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Serum creatinine 3.5 mg/dL.' An elevated serum creatinine level indicates worsening kidney function and impaired renal clearance, which should be reported to the provider promptly. Choice A, 'Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 15 mg/dL,' is within the normal range (7-20 mg/dL) and does not indicate acute kidney injury. Choice B, 'Urine output of 45 mL/hr,' is a low urine output but does not directly reflect kidney function decline. Choice D, 'Calcium 9 mg/dL,' is within the normal calcium range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and is not specifically indicative of acute kidney injury.
3. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory results indicates the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin?
- A. INR 1.5
- B. aPTT 60 seconds
- C. Platelets 150,000/mm³
- D. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for a clot to form, and a therapeutic range for heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 60-80 seconds. An INR of 1.5 is not related to heparin therapy, as it is commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy. Platelet count and potassium levels are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.
4. What is the priority nursing action for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?
- A. Administer bronchodilators
- B. Administer corticosteroids
- C. Provide supplemental oxygen
- D. Start IV fluids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer bronchodilators as the priority nursing action for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack. Bronchodilators help open the airways and improve airflow, which is crucial in managing the acute respiratory distress in asthma. Corticosteroids may be used subsequently to reduce inflammation, but in the acute phase, bronchodilators take precedence. Providing supplemental oxygen is important but may not address the underlying bronchoconstriction characteristic of an asthma attack. Starting IV fluids is not a priority in managing an acute asthma attack unless indicated for specific reasons such as dehydration.
5. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Apples.
- B. White bread.
- C. Bananas.
- D. Grapes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Bananas are high in potassium, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease to prevent hyperkalemia. Apples, white bread, and grapes do not have high potassium levels and are generally acceptable for clients with chronic kidney disease unless they have other specific dietary restrictions.
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