a nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a cholecystectomy which of the following actions should the nurse take to preven
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a cholecystectomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent postoperative complications?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Have the client wear sequential compression devices (SCDs). Following a cholecystectomy, the client is at risk for venous thromboembolism (VTE) due to reduced mobility and surgical stress. SCDs help prevent VTE by promoting venous return and reducing the risk of blood clots. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While deep breathing and coughing exercises are essential postoperatively, SCDs take precedence in preventing VTE. Placing the client in a supine position with the head of the bed flat can increase the risk of respiratory complications. Encouraging ambulation is important, but SCDs are a higher priority in this situation to prevent VTE.

2. A client is 1 day postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent respiratory complications?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the use of an incentive spirometer is crucial for preventing respiratory complications postoperatively, such as atelectasis. Instructing the client to avoid deep breathing exercises (choice A) is incorrect as deep breathing exercises help prevent respiratory complications. Assisting with ambulation every 2 hours (choice C) is important for preventing other postoperative complications but not specifically respiratory ones. Applying sequential compression devices (SCDs) (choice D) is beneficial for preventing deep vein thrombosis but not directly related to respiratory complications.

3. A nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include to prevent injury?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform weight-bearing exercises. Weight-bearing exercises are crucial for preventing bone density loss in clients with osteoporosis. These exercises help strengthen bones and reduce the risk of fractures. Option B, avoiding crossing the legs beyond the midline, is not directly related to preventing injury in osteoporosis. Option C, avoiding sitting in one position for prolonged periods, is important for preventing pressure ulcers but does not specifically address preventing injury in osteoporosis. Option D, splinting the affected area, is not a standard recommendation for preventing injury in osteoporosis.

4. A client with lactose intolerance and has eliminated dairy products from his diet should increase consumption of which of the following foods?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spinach is the correct answer because it is a good source of calcium. Since the client has eliminated dairy products due to lactose intolerance, which are a common source of calcium, increasing spinach consumption can help compensate for the lost calcium. Peanut butter, ground beef, and carrots are not significant sources of calcium and therefore not the best choice for this client.

5. What should the healthcare provider monitor for a patient receiving furosemide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels when a patient is receiving furosemide because furosemide can cause potassium depletion. It is essential to monitor potassium levels to prevent complications such as hypokalemia. While monitoring urine output is important in assessing kidney function, and monitoring blood pressure and serum creatinine are relevant in certain situations, the priority when administering furosemide is to monitor potassium levels due to the medication's potential to deplete potassium.

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