a nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of graves disease and a new prescription for propylthiouracil ptu which of the follo
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A client with a new diagnosis of Graves' disease and a prescription for propylthiouracil (PTU) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because propylthiouracil (PTU) can increase the risk of infection. Therefore, the client should be aware that this medication may compromise their immune system, making them more susceptible to infections. Reporting any signs of infection promptly to the provider is crucial for timely intervention and management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because reporting a sore throat, assuming lifelong medication intake, or experiencing decreased appetite are not directly related to the medication's side effects or risks.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. 1+ protein in the urine is indicative of worsening preeclampsia and should be reported to the provider immediately. Elevated blood pressure (choice A) is expected in preeclampsia, but a reading of 120/80 mm Hg is within the normal range. A respiratory rate of 16/min (choice B) and a heart rate of 88/min (choice D) are also within normal limits and not indicative of worsening preeclampsia.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has Cushing's disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In Cushing's disease, there is increased cortisol production, which can lead to various metabolic disturbances. One of the common findings is an increased serum potassium level. The other options are incorrect because Cushing's disease typically causes hyperglycemia, not decreased serum glucose levels (A), lymphocytopenia, not increased lymphocyte count (B), and hyponatremia, not decreased serum sodium level (D).

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Blurred vision is a classic sign of digoxin toxicity, indicating a potential overdose. It is crucial to recognize this symptom promptly and report it to the healthcare provider for immediate intervention. Bradycardia and nausea are common side effects of digoxin but not specific indicators of toxicity. Tachycardia is unlikely in digoxin toxicity since it usually causes a decrease in heart rate.

5. A client with heart failure is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: I will reduce my intake of processed meats.' This choice indicates an understanding of the teaching because processed meats are high in sodium, which can worsen heart failure due to fluid retention. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the issue of reducing sodium intake, which is crucial for clients with heart failure. Increasing canned vegetable intake (A) may not always be advisable due to potential high sodium content in canned products. Limiting sodium intake to 2 grams daily (B) is a good practice, but it's more specific to sodium restriction rather than addressing the source of sodium like processed meats. Increasing whole grains (C) is generally beneficial but does not directly relate to reducing sodium intake in heart failure clients.

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