Nursing Elites

1. A client with a new diagnosis of Graves' disease and a prescription for propylthiouracil (PTU) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should report a sore throat to my provider.
• B. I will need to take this medication for the rest of my life.
• C. This medication increases my risk for infection.
• D. This medication decreases my appetite.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because propylthiouracil (PTU) can increase the risk of infection. Therefore, the client should be aware that this medication may compromise their immune system, making them more susceptible to infections. Reporting any signs of infection promptly to the provider is crucial for timely intervention and management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because reporting a sore throat, assuming lifelong medication intake, or experiencing decreased appetite are not directly related to the medication's side effects or risks.

2. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). What recommendation should be included?

• A. Consume foods high in bran fiber.
• B. Increase intake of milk products.
• C. Sweeten foods with fructose corn syrup.
• D. Increase intake of foods high in gluten.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Consume foods high in bran fiber. Bran fiber is recommended for clients with IBS as it promotes regularity and helps reduce symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing milk products may exacerbate symptoms in some individuals with IBS due to lactose intolerance. Sweetening foods with fructose corn syrup can worsen symptoms as it is a type of sugar that can lead to gastrointestinal discomfort. Increasing intake of foods high in gluten is not recommended for individuals with IBS, especially those with gluten sensitivity, as it may trigger or worsen symptoms.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 3 days postoperative following a bowel resection. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 80/min
• B. White blood cell count of 9,000/mm3
• C. Temperature of 37.8°C (100°F)
• D. Blood pressure of 118/78 mm Hg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 37.8°C (100°F) should be reported to the provider as it can indicate infection, a common postoperative complication. A normal heart rate of 80/min (Choice A), white blood cell count of 9,000/mm3 (Choice B), and blood pressure of 118/78 mm Hg (Choice D) are within normal ranges and do not necessarily indicate a complication postoperatively.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hyperthermia
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. In acute alcohol withdrawal, tachycardia is a common finding due to increased sympathetic activity. Bradycardia (Choice A) is less likely in this condition since the sympathetic nervous system is typically overactive. Hyperthermia (Choice C) is not a typical finding in acute alcohol withdrawal. Hypotension (Choice D) is less common compared to tachycardia in this situation.

5. A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a nonstress test (NST). Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should fast for 12 hours before the test.
• B. I should expect the test to take about 10 minutes.
• C. I should have a full bladder for this test.
• D. I will need to have my blood glucose checked before the test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nonstress test typically takes about 10 minutes and evaluates the fetal heart rate in response to fetal movement. Having a full bladder or fasting for 12 hours is not required for a nonstress test. Checking blood glucose levels is not part of the nonstress test procedure.

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