ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A client with a new diagnosis of Graves' disease and a prescription for propylthiouracil (PTU) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should report a sore throat to my provider.
- B. I will need to take this medication for the rest of my life.
- C. This medication increases my risk for infection.
- D. This medication decreases my appetite.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because propylthiouracil (PTU) can increase the risk of infection. Therefore, the client should be aware that this medication may compromise their immune system, making them more susceptible to infections. Reporting any signs of infection promptly to the provider is crucial for timely intervention and management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because reporting a sore throat, assuming lifelong medication intake, or experiencing decreased appetite are not directly related to the medication's side effects or risks.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and has compression stockings. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Check the stockings for wrinkles
- B. Apply the stockings while the client is sitting in a chair
- C. Measure the size of the client's foot
- D. Remove the stockings once each day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to check the stockings for wrinkles. This is important to ensure that the stockings are applied correctly without any folds or wrinkles, which can hinder proper circulation and compression. Option B is incorrect because compression stockings should be applied with the client lying down, not sitting in a chair. Option C is unnecessary as the size of the client's foot is unlikely to change postoperatively. Option D is incorrect as compression stockings are usually worn continuously except for specific care needs.
3. The patient should be taught that an improvement in symptoms will likely be noticed within
- A. 48 hours.
- B. a week to 10 days.
- C. 2 to 3 weeks.
- D. 4 to 6 weeks.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When taking isoniazid and rifampin for active tuberculosis, patients should be taught that an improvement in symptoms will likely be noticed within 2 to 3 weeks. Choice A (48 hours) is too soon to expect significant improvement in symptoms. Choice B (a week to 10 days) is also too early for noticeable improvement with this medication regimen. Choice D (4 to 6 weeks) is too far out to expect a noticeable improvement in symptoms.
4. The parents of an infant with a cleft palate ask the nurse, "What follow-up care will our infant need after the repair?" Which is an accurate response by the nurse?
- A. Your infant will not need any subsequent follow-up care
- B. Your infant will only need to be evaluated by an audiologist
- C. Your infant will only need follow-up with a speech pathologist
- D. Your infant will need follow-up with audiologists and orthodontists
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After cleft palate repair, the child will need ongoing follow-up with audiologists, speech pathologists, and orthodontists to monitor hearing, speech development, and dental alignment.
5. A teacher in a preschool is diagnosed with giardiasis. Which of the following medications will be administered to treat the diarrhea and abdominal distention?
- A. Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)
- B. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
- C. Trimethoprim–sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)
- D. Doxycycline (Vibramycin)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Metronidazole (Flagyl) is the drug of choice for treating giardiasis, which is a common cause of diarrhea and abdominal distention. Sulfasalazine (Choice A) is used to treat inflammatory bowel disease. Trimethoprim–sulfamethoxazole (Choice C) is commonly used for urinary tract infections and Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia. Doxycycline (Choice D) is commonly used to treat various bacterial infections but is not the first-line treatment for giardiasis.
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