a nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of graves disease and a new prescription for propylthiouracil ptu which of the follo
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A client with a new diagnosis of Graves' disease and a prescription for propylthiouracil (PTU) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because propylthiouracil (PTU) can increase the risk of infection. Therefore, the client should be aware that this medication may compromise their immune system, making them more susceptible to infections. Reporting any signs of infection promptly to the provider is crucial for timely intervention and management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because reporting a sore throat, assuming lifelong medication intake, or experiencing decreased appetite are not directly related to the medication's side effects or risks.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral nutrition through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to check the placement of the nasogastric tube every 8 hours. This is crucial to ensure that the tube is correctly positioned in the stomach, reducing the risk of complications such as aspiration. Administering the feeding using a large-bore syringe (Choice A) is not recommended for enteral nutrition. Flushing the tube with water every 6 hours (Choice C) is not necessary for continuous enteral nutrition. Maintaining the client in an upright position (Choice D) is generally preferred to reduce the risk of aspiration, but it is not the most critical action compared to verifying tube placement.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion by increasing its excretion in the urine. Hypokalemia is a common and concerning side effect of furosemide therapy. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is less likely as furosemide tends to lower potassium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with furosemide use.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following a colon resection and a new colostomy. What dietary advice should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Consume foods high in fiber and low in fat. Following a colon resection and a new colostomy, a high-fiber, low-fat diet is recommended to promote healing and reduce the risk of complications. Foods high in fiber help maintain bowel regularity and prevent constipation, which is crucial after this type of surgery. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because avoiding foods high in protein, consuming foods high in vitamin C, or avoiding all raw vegetables are not the most appropriate dietary advice in this situation.

5. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient for dehydration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Checking for skin turgor is a reliable method to assess dehydration in patients. Skin turgor refers to the skin's elasticity and hydration status. When a healthcare professional gently pinches the skin on the back of the patient's hand or forearm, dehydration is indicated by the skin not snapping back immediately. Monitoring blood pressure (choice B) is important but is more indicative of cardiovascular status rather than dehydration specifically. Checking for dry mucous membranes (choice C) can be a sign of dehydration, but skin turgor is a more direct assessment. Monitoring urine output (choice D) is also essential but may not provide immediate feedback on hydration status as skin turgor does.

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