what is the best method to manage fluid overload in a patient with heart failure
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. What is the best method to manage fluid overload in a patient with heart failure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering diuretics is the best method to manage fluid overload in a patient with heart failure. Diuretics help to remove excess fluid from the body by increasing urine output, thus reducing the fluid volume in the bloodstream and tissues. Providing oral fluids (choice B) or increasing fluid intake (choice C) would exacerbate the fluid overload rather than managing it. Chest physiotherapy (choice D) is not indicated for managing fluid overload in heart failure; it is more commonly used for conditions affecting the lungs or airways.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of angina and reports chest pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a 12-lead ECG. In a client with a history of angina and reporting chest pain, the priority action is to assess for myocardial infarction, which is best done through an ECG. Administering oxygen, nitroglycerin, or notifying the provider can be important actions but obtaining an ECG takes precedence in evaluating the client's condition.

3. What is the priority nursing action for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer bronchodilators as the priority nursing action for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack. Bronchodilators help open the airways and improve airflow, which is crucial in managing the acute respiratory distress in asthma. Corticosteroids may be used subsequently to reduce inflammation, but in the acute phase, bronchodilators take precedence. Providing supplemental oxygen is important but may not address the underlying bronchoconstriction characteristic of an asthma attack. Starting IV fluids is not a priority in managing an acute asthma attack unless indicated for specific reasons such as dehydration.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a new prescription for insulin glargine. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Insulin glargine has a 24-hour duration of action, making it suitable for once-daily dosing for long-term blood sugar control. Choice A is incorrect as insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin with no pronounced peak effect in its action profile. Choice C is incorrect as insulin glargine is usually given at the same time each day regardless of meals. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to avoid eating before or after taking insulin glargine.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has Raynaud's disease. What intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Raynaud's disease is to provide information about stress management. Stress management techniques can help reduce the frequency and severity of Raynaud's episodes. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining a cool temperature can exacerbate symptoms in individuals with Raynaud's disease. Choice C is incorrect as epinephrine is not typically used for Raynaud's disease. Choice D is incorrect as glucocorticoid steroids are not the first-line treatment for Raynaud's disease.

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