Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer an IV bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride to a client who is dehydrated. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the solution slowly over 24 hours
• B. Assess the client's lung sounds before administration
• C. Change the IV tubing every 12 hours
• D. Flush the IV line with 2 mL of heparin every 4 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to assess the client's lung sounds before administering IV fluids. This is crucial to identify any signs of fluid overload, such as crackles or wheezes. Administering the solution slowly over 24 hours (choice A) is not appropriate for an IV bolus, which is a rapid infusion. Changing the IV tubing every 12 hours (choice C) is a standard practice for preventing infection but is not directly related to administering an IV bolus. Flushing the IV line with heparin every 4 hours (choice D) is a maintenance practice to prevent clot formation in the line, not specifically related to administering an IV bolus.

2. A client with osteoporosis is being taught by a nurse how to prevent further bone loss. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take a calcium supplement daily.
• B. Perform weight-bearing exercises.
• C. Avoid weight-bearing exercises.
• D. Limit intake of high-phosphorus foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Perform weight-bearing exercises. Weight-bearing exercises are essential for preventing further bone loss and improving bone density in clients with osteoporosis. Calcium supplements alone may not be sufficient to prevent bone loss without adequate physical activity. Option C, 'Avoid weight-bearing exercises,' is incorrect as these exercises are beneficial for bone health. Option D, 'Limit intake of high-phosphorus foods,' is not directly related to preventing further bone loss in osteoporosis.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following findings indicates the effectiveness of the treatment?

• A. A chest x-ray reveals increased density in all lung fields.
• B. The client reports feeling less anxious.
• C. Diminished breath sounds are auscultated bilaterally.
• D. ABG results include pH 7.48, PaO2 77 mm Hg, and PaCO2 47 mm Hg.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. In a client with a pulmonary embolism, improvement in anxiety levels can indicate the effectiveness of treatment as it suggests better oxygenation and perfusion. Choices A, C, and D do not directly reflect the effectiveness of treatment for a pulmonary embolism. Increased density in all lung fields on a chest x-ray may indicate worsening of the condition, diminished breath sounds suggest impaired lung function, and ABG results with a pH of 7.48, PaO2 of 77 mm Hg, and PaCO2 of 47 mm Hg do not specifically indicate treatment effectiveness for a pulmonary embolism.

4. A nurse is planning to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which of the following should the nurse do to prevent an adverse transfusion reaction?

• A. Verify the client's blood type with the provider's prescription
• B. Ensure the client's consent for the transfusion is on file
• C. Administer a diuretic prior to starting the transfusion
• D. Check the client's temperature prior to the transfusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to verify the client's blood type with the provider's prescription. This is crucial to prevent an adverse transfusion reaction due to incompatibility. Ensuring the blood type matches before starting the transfusion is a standard safety practice. Option B, ensuring client consent, is important but not directly related to preventing a transfusion reaction. Option C, administering a diuretic, is unnecessary and can be harmful in this context. Option D, checking the client's temperature, is important for general assessment but not specifically focused on preventing a transfusion reaction.

5. A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. Which of the following sexually transmitted infections is a nationally notifiable infectious disease that should be reported to the state health department?

• A. Chlamydia
• B. Human papillomavirus
• C. Candidiasis
• D. Herpes simplex virus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chlamydia is the correct answer. Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection that is considered a nationally notifiable infectious disease, meaning healthcare providers are required to report cases to public health authorities. Reporting such cases is crucial for disease surveillance and implementing appropriate control measures. Human papillomavirus, Candidiasis, and Herpes simplex virus are not nationally notifiable infectious diseases and do not require mandatory reporting to the state health department.

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