ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is preparing to administer an IV bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride to a client who is dehydrated. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer the solution slowly over 24 hours
- B. Assess the client's lung sounds before administration
- C. Change the IV tubing every 12 hours
- D. Flush the IV line with 2 mL of heparin every 4 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to assess the client's lung sounds before administering IV fluids. This is crucial to identify any signs of fluid overload, such as crackles or wheezes. Administering the solution slowly over 24 hours (choice A) is not appropriate for an IV bolus, which is a rapid infusion. Changing the IV tubing every 12 hours (choice C) is a standard practice for preventing infection but is not directly related to administering an IV bolus. Flushing the IV line with heparin every 4 hours (choice D) is a maintenance practice to prevent clot formation in the line, not specifically related to administering an IV bolus.
2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is receiving radiation therapy for cancer of the larynx. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Apply heat to the neck to relieve pain.
- B. Use a soft-bristle toothbrush to prevent gum irritation.
- C. Rinse your mouth with an alcohol-free mouthwash twice daily.
- D. Wear loose-fitting clothing to protect your skin.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to use a soft-bristle toothbrush to prevent gum irritation in clients undergoing radiation therapy for laryngeal cancer. Radiation therapy can cause oral mucositis and increase the risk of gum irritation, so using a soft-bristle toothbrush is recommended to minimize trauma to the gums and oral mucosa. Applying heat to the neck is contraindicated as it can exacerbate tissue damage caused by radiation. Rinsing the mouth with an alcohol-free mouthwash is preferred over an alcohol-based one to prevent drying and irritation of the oral mucosa. Wearing loose-fitting clothing is advised to prevent friction and irritation on the skin, rather than tight-fitting clothing that may cause pressure ulcers or skin breakdown.
3. What should the healthcare provider monitor for a patient receiving furosemide?
- A. Monitor urine output
- B. Monitor blood pressure
- C. Monitor potassium levels
- D. Monitor serum creatinine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels when a patient is receiving furosemide because furosemide can cause potassium depletion. It is essential to monitor potassium levels to prevent complications such as hypokalemia. While monitoring urine output is important in assessing kidney function, and monitoring blood pressure and serum creatinine are relevant in certain situations, the priority when administering furosemide is to monitor potassium levels due to the medication's potential to deplete potassium.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse expect to be elevated?
- A. Serum creatinine.
- B. Amylase.
- C. Hemoglobin.
- D. Blood glucose.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Amylase. Amylase is typically elevated in clients with acute pancreatitis due to inflammation of the pancreas. Elevated serum creatinine levels are more indicative of kidney dysfunction rather than pancreatitis. Hemoglobin levels are not directly related to pancreatitis. While blood glucose levels can be affected by pancreatitis, they are not typically the primary laboratory result expected to be elevated in this condition.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion by increasing its excretion in the urine. Hypokalemia is a common and concerning side effect of furosemide therapy. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is less likely as furosemide tends to lower potassium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with furosemide use.
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