a nurse is preparing to administer an iv bolus of 09 sodium chloride to a client who is dehydrated which of the following actions should the nurse tak
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is preparing to administer an IV bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride to a client who is dehydrated. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to assess the client's lung sounds before administering IV fluids. This is crucial to identify any signs of fluid overload, such as crackles or wheezes. Administering the solution slowly over 24 hours (choice A) is not appropriate for an IV bolus, which is a rapid infusion. Changing the IV tubing every 12 hours (choice C) is a standard practice for preventing infection but is not directly related to administering an IV bolus. Flushing the IV line with heparin every 4 hours (choice D) is a maintenance practice to prevent clot formation in the line, not specifically related to administering an IV bolus.

2. What is the best way to monitor fluid balance in a patient receiving diuretics?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Daily weight monitoring is the most accurate way to assess fluid balance in patients receiving diuretics. Monitoring daily weight allows healthcare providers to track changes in fluid status more precisely. While monitoring intake and output (choice B) is essential, it may not provide a comprehensive picture of overall fluid balance. Monitoring blood pressure (choice C) is important but may not directly reflect fluid balance. Checking for edema (choice D) is useful but may not be as sensitive as daily weight monitoring in assessing fluid balance.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Chicken breast. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Foods high in potassium, like spinach and yogurt, should be avoided when taking spironolactone to prevent hyperkalemia. Chicken breast, being a low-potassium protein source, is a suitable recommendation for clients on spironolactone therapy.

4. A client is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse expect to be ordered to monitor the effect of warfarin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). When a client is on warfarin therapy, the INR is monitored regularly to assess the anticoagulant effects of the medication. A therapeutic INR range for most indications is between 2.0 to 3.0. Choices A, C, and D are not typically used to monitor the effect of warfarin. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood, PT measures the clotting time of plasma, and PTT evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased urinary output is a common finding in clients with diabetes mellitus due to hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis. This results in the body trying to eliminate excess glucose through urine, leading to increased urinary frequency and volume. Weight gain is not typically associated with diabetes mellitus but may occur in poorly controlled cases due to increased calorie intake. Blurred vision is more commonly associated with acute complications like hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Diaphoresis, or excessive sweating, is not a typical finding in diabetes mellitus but can be seen in conditions like hypoglycemia.

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