Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has myasthenia gravis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Increased muscle strength.
• C. Diarrhea.
• D. Decreased deep tendon reflexes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased deep tendon reflexes. In myasthenia gravis, muscle weakness is a common manifestation, leading to decreased deep tendon reflexes. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically associated with myasthenia gravis. Increased muscle strength (choice B) is unlikely as muscle weakness is a hallmark of this condition. Diarrhea (choice C) is not a typical finding in myasthenia gravis.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following findings is a priority for the nurse to report?

• A. Platelet count of 200,000/mm³
• B. Hemoglobin level of 15 g/dL
• C. Respiratory rate of 22/min
• D. Dark, tarry stools

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Dark, tarry stools indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, which is a serious side effect of enoxaparin that requires immediate medical attention. Reporting this finding promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and are not directly related to the adverse effects of enoxaparin, so they do not take precedence over the urgent concern of gastrointestinal bleeding.

3. A nurse is caring for an infant who has a prescription for continuous pulse oximetry. Which of the following is an appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Place the infant under a radiant warmer
• B. Move the probe site every 3 hours
• C. Heat the skin one minute prior to placing the probe
• D. Place a sensor on the index finger

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to move the probe site every 3 hours. This action helps prevent skin breakdown and ensures accurate readings. Placing the infant under a radiant warmer (Choice A) is not necessary for pulse oximetry monitoring. Heating the skin before placing the probe (Choice C) can potentially cause burns in infants. Placing a sensor on the index finger (Choice D) is not the standard practice for continuous pulse oximetry in infants.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and reports nausea. The nurse should identify that this client is at risk for which of the following imbalances?

• A. Metabolic alkalosis
• B. Metabolic acidosis
• C. Respiratory alkalosis
• D. Respiratory acidosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metabolic acidosis. Clients with chronic kidney disease are at risk for metabolic acidosis because the kidneys are unable to effectively excrete acids, leading to an accumulation of acid in the body. This metabolic imbalance can result in symptoms like nausea. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Metabolic alkalosis is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Respiratory alkalosis is more commonly seen in conditions such as hyperventilation. Respiratory acidosis, on the other hand, is often linked to conditions affecting the lungs or respiratory system, not primarily kidney disease.

5. What is the recommended dietary restriction for a patient with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Limit potassium intake
• B. Limit fluid intake
• C. Increase protein intake
• D. Increase carbohydrate intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit fluid intake for a patient with chronic kidney disease. This restriction helps manage fluid balance to prevent fluid overload. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Limiting potassium intake is essential for some patients with kidney disease, but it is not the primary dietary restriction. Increasing protein intake is usually not recommended due to the impaired kidney function in these patients. Increasing carbohydrate intake is also not a standard recommendation for patients with chronic kidney disease.

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