Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has myasthenia gravis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Increased muscle strength.
• C. Diarrhea.
• D. Decreased deep tendon reflexes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased deep tendon reflexes. In myasthenia gravis, muscle weakness is a common manifestation, leading to decreased deep tendon reflexes. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically associated with myasthenia gravis. Increased muscle strength (choice B) is unlikely as muscle weakness is a hallmark of this condition. Diarrhea (choice C) is not a typical finding in myasthenia gravis.

2. What is the appropriate action when a patient experiences an allergic reaction to a medication?

• A. Administer epinephrine
• B. Discontinue the medication
• C. Administer corticosteroids
• D. Administer antihistamines

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for a severe allergic reaction as it helps to constrict blood vessels, increase heart rate, and open airways, thereby improving breathing and circulation. Discontinuing the medication may not be sufficient to manage a severe allergic reaction as the allergen is already in the patient's system. Corticosteroids and antihistamines can be considered as complementary treatments but are not the primary immediate intervention required for a severe allergic reaction.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving opioid analgesics for pain management. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Respiratory rate of 20/min
• B. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
• C. Heart rate of 88/min
• D. Oxygen saturation of 94%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A heart rate of 88/min is a normal finding; therefore, it does not require immediate reporting to the provider. The respiratory rate of 20/min, blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg, and oxygen saturation of 94% are also within normal ranges and do not indicate any immediate concerns. However, a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can be a serious issue and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management.

4. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which resource should the healthcare provider provide?

• A. Personal blogs about managing the adverse effects of diabetes medications.
• B. Food label recommendations from the Institute of Medicine.
• C. Diabetes medication information from the Physicians' Desk Reference.
• D. Food exchange lists for meal planning from the American Diabetes Association.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Food exchange lists from the American Diabetes Association are a valuable resource for structured meal planning in individuals with diabetes. These lists categorize foods based on macronutrient content and help individuals plan balanced meals to manage blood sugar levels effectively. Personal blogs may not always provide accurate and evidence-based information. Food label recommendations from the Institute of Medicine are important but may not be as specific to meal planning for diabetes. Diabetes medication information is crucial but not the primary focus when providing dietary instructions.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is most common in patients receiving furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly leads to potassium loss in the urine, causing hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients taking furosemide. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypercalcemia, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with furosemide use.

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