Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has myasthenia gravis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Increased muscle strength.
• C. Diarrhea.
• D. Decreased deep tendon reflexes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased deep tendon reflexes. In myasthenia gravis, muscle weakness is a common manifestation, leading to decreased deep tendon reflexes. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically associated with myasthenia gravis. Increased muscle strength (choice B) is unlikely as muscle weakness is a hallmark of this condition. Diarrhea (choice C) is not a typical finding in myasthenia gravis.

2. A nurse is caring for a 1-day-old newborn who has jaundice and is receiving phototherapy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Feed the infant 30 ml (1 oz) of glucose water every 2 hours.
• B. Keep the infant's head uncovered.
• C. Ensure that the newborn wears a diaper.
• D. Apply lotion to the newborn every 4 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to ensure that the newborn wears a diaper. This is important to prevent irritation during phototherapy, as exposure to light can increase the risk of skin breakdown. Feeding the infant glucose water is unnecessary and not indicated for jaundice treatment. Keeping the infant's head uncovered allows the light to reach the skin effectively. Applying lotion to the newborn every 4 hours can interfere with the effectiveness of phototherapy and is not recommended.

3. What is the priority intervention for a patient with dehydration?

• A. Administer IV fluids
• B. Monitor intake and output
• C. Administer oral fluids
• D. Provide electrolyte replacement

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer IV fluids. This intervention is the priority as it helps rapidly restore hydration in patients with dehydration by delivering fluids directly into the bloodstream. Monitoring intake and output (choice B) is important but comes after providing immediate fluid resuscitation. Administering oral fluids (choice C) may not be sufficient for a patient with dehydration who requires rapid rehydration. Providing electrolyte replacement (choice D) is essential but often follows fluid resuscitation to correct any electrolyte imbalances resulting from dehydration.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client receiving morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Diarrhea.
• B. Urinary retention.
• C. Hypotension.
• D. Bradycardia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypotension is a common adverse effect of morphine due to its vasodilatory properties. It can lead to a drop in blood pressure, which should be closely monitored during administration. Diarrhea (Choice A) is not a typical adverse effect of morphine. Urinary retention (Choice B) is a side effect of morphine due to its impact on the bladder muscles, but it is not classified as an adverse effect. Bradycardia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of morphine; instead, it tends to cause tachycardia.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is postpartum and reports perineal pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer analgesics as prescribed.
• B. Apply a warm compress to the perineum.
• C. Encourage the client to ambulate frequently.
• D. Position the client with the head elevated.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering analgesics as prescribed is the appropriate intervention for managing perineal pain in a postpartum client. Analgesics help to alleviate discomfort and promote the client's recovery. Applying a warm compress (choice B) may provide some relief, but it does not address the pain as effectively as analgesics. Encouraging ambulation (choice C) and positioning the client with the head elevated (choice D) are not directly related to addressing perineal pain.

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