a nurse is assessing a client who has myasthenia gravis which of the following findings should the nurse expect
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ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has myasthenia gravis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased deep tendon reflexes. In myasthenia gravis, muscle weakness is a common manifestation, leading to decreased deep tendon reflexes. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically associated with myasthenia gravis. Increased muscle strength (choice B) is unlikely as muscle weakness is a hallmark of this condition. Diarrhea (choice C) is not a typical finding in myasthenia gravis.

2. Four clients present to the emergency department. The nurse should plan to see which of the following clients first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client presenting with symptoms of a stroke, such as slurred speech, disorientation, and headache, requires immediate attention due to the possibility of a neurological emergency. Choices A, B, and C, although concerning, do not present with symptoms as urgent as those of a potential stroke. Dislocated shoulder, sickle cell disease with joint pain, and confusion with febrile illness can be addressed after ensuring the client with stroke-like symptoms receives prompt evaluation and intervention.

3. A client is immediately postoperative following a hip arthroplasty. Which of the following positions should the nurse maintain for the client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct position for a client immediately postoperative following a hip arthroplasty is the lateral position with an abduction pillow between the legs. This position helps prevent dislocation of the hip prosthesis and maintains proper alignment of the hip joint. Supine position with legs extended (Choice A) may put stress on the hip joint, Semi-Fowler's position with legs bent (Choice B) may not provide adequate support and alignment, and prone position with legs elevated (Choice D) is not recommended after hip arthroplasty as it can compromise the surgical site and increase the risk of complications.

4. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, monitoring potassium levels is crucial due to the drug's potential to cause hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes potassium excretion in the urine, leading to a risk of low potassium levels. Monitoring potassium levels helps in detecting and preventing hypokalemia, which can result in adverse effects like cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium, calcium, and hemoglobin levels are usually not directly affected by furosemide, making them less pertinent for monitoring in this specific scenario.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when administering enoxaparin is to inject the medication deep into subcutaneous tissue. This method helps ensure proper absorption of the medication and prevents tissue irritation. Injecting into the deltoid muscle (Choice A) is not recommended for enoxaparin administration. Massaging the injection site (Choice C) can lead to tissue damage and bruising. Inserting the needle at a 10-degree angle (Choice D) is not the correct technique for administering enoxaparin.

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