a nurse is assessing a client who has myasthenia gravis which of the following findings should the nurse expect
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ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has myasthenia gravis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased deep tendon reflexes. In myasthenia gravis, muscle weakness is a common manifestation, leading to decreased deep tendon reflexes. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically associated with myasthenia gravis. Increased muscle strength (choice B) is unlikely as muscle weakness is a hallmark of this condition. Diarrhea (choice C) is not a typical finding in myasthenia gravis.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has experienced a stroke and has aphasia. Which of the following communication strategies should the nurse use?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to use a picture board to facilitate communication. Aphasia can make it challenging for individuals to understand and use language. Using a picture board can help the client convey their needs and understand information more effectively. Speaking louder (A) may not be helpful as aphasia is not related to hearing loss. While speaking using simple sentences and gestures (B) can be beneficial, using a picture board (C) is a more concrete and visual method to support communication for individuals with aphasia. Having the client practice writing words down (D) may not be suitable if the client's expressive language skills are impaired due to aphasia.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving a continuous IV infusion of furosemide. Which of the following findings indicates the nurse should increase the client's infusion rate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A weight gain of 1 kg in 24 hours can indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure, requiring an increase in diuresis. This finding suggests that the current diuretic therapy is not effective enough to manage the fluid overload, necessitating an increase in the infusion rate of furosemide. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the need for an increase in diuretic therapy in heart failure patients. Urine output of 20 mL/hr, a heart rate of 90/min, and a sodium level of 138 mEq/L are important parameters to monitor but do not specifically indicate the need to increase the infusion rate of furosemide.

4. What is the best intervention for a patient with dehydration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering IV fluids is the best intervention for a patient with dehydration because it is the fastest and most effective way to rehydrate the body. IV fluids can quickly restore fluid volume and electrolyte balance in severe cases of dehydration. Providing oral fluids or encouraging fluid intake may not be sufficient for patients with moderate to severe dehydration, as they may have impaired gastrointestinal absorption. While electrolytes are essential for rehydration, administering them alone without fluid replacement may not address the primary issue of fluid loss in dehydration.

5. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has major depressive disorder and is taking tranylcypromine. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cured meats. Cured meats contain tyramine, which can lead to a hypertensive crisis in clients taking tranylcypromine. Bananas, milk, and yogurt do not contain significant amounts of tyramine and are safe for clients taking this medication. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid cured meats to prevent adverse effects.

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