a nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy the nurse should identify that which of the following client reports is
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. The nurse should identify that which of the following client reports is an indication of hypocalcemia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Numbness and tingling of the fingers.' Post-thyroidectomy, hypocalcemia is a concern due to potential damage to the parathyroid glands that regulate calcium levels. Numbness and tingling of the fingers are classic signs of hypocalcemia. Constipation (Choice A) is not typically associated with hypocalcemia. Frequent urination (Choice B) is more indicative of conditions like diabetes or a urinary tract infection. Increased thirst (Choice D) is commonly seen in conditions such as diabetes insipidus or uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, not specifically related to hypocalcemia.

2. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a client with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is to consume foods high in bran fiber. Bran fiber promotes regularity and helps reduce IBS symptoms by aiding digestion and preventing constipation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing intake of milk products may exacerbate IBS symptoms in some individuals due to lactose intolerance. Sweetening foods with fructose corn syrup can worsen IBS symptoms as it may cause bloating and gas. Increasing intake of foods high in gluten may also be problematic for individuals with IBS as gluten-containing foods can trigger symptoms like abdominal pain and diarrhea.

3. A client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings is at risk for aspiration. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Checking gastric residual volumes every 6 hours is essential in preventing aspiration in clients receiving continuous enteral feedings. This practice helps determine if the stomach is adequately emptying, reducing the risk of regurgitation and aspiration. Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees, not 15 degrees, is recommended to further prevent aspiration by reducing the risk of reflux. Monitoring the pH of gastric aspirate is important to assess tube placement but does not directly prevent aspiration. Instilling air into the tube before feeding is not a recommended practice and does not prevent aspiration.

4. Which of the following lab values indicates a patient on warfarin is at a therapeutic level?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An INR of 2.5 indicates a therapeutic level for a patient on warfarin. The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the most accurate way to monitor and adjust warfarin doses. An INR of 1.1 (Choice A) is below the therapeutic range, indicating a need for an increased dose. PT (Prothrombin Time) of 12 seconds (Choice B) is not specific for warfarin therapy monitoring. Platelet count (Choice D) is not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.

5. What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with a suspected stroke?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a patient with a suspected stroke is to perform a CT scan. A CT scan is crucial for diagnosing a stroke by visualizing any bleeding or blockages in the brain. Administering IV fluids (Choice A) may be necessary based on the patient's condition, but it is not the primary intervention for a suspected stroke. Performing a lumbar puncture (Choice C) is not indicated for stroke evaluation and may not provide relevant information. Administering anticoagulants (Choice D) is a treatment option for certain types of strokes but should be based on the CT scan results and specific guidelines.

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