Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has hypovolemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Tachycardia.
• C. Increased blood pressure.
• D. Bounding pulse.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. In hypovolemia, the body responds to decreased fluid volume by increasing the heart rate (tachycardia) to maintain adequate circulation. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not expected in hypovolemia since the heart rate typically increases to compensate for the reduced blood volume. Increased blood pressure (Choice C) is unlikely in hypovolemia as the decreased fluid volume leads to decreased pressure. A bounding pulse (Choice D) is more associated with conditions like hyperthyroidism or fever, not specifically with hypovolemia.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a complication of GERD?

• A. Hematemesis.
• B. Melena.
• C. Pallor.
• D. Steatorrhea.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hematemesis. Hematemesis (vomiting blood) is a sign of gastrointestinal bleeding and a serious complication of GERD. Melena (black, tarry stool) is also a sign of GI bleeding but is not as specific to GERD as hematemesis. Pallor may be present due to anemia from chronic blood loss, but it is not a direct complication of GERD. Steatorrhea is not typically associated with GERD; it is more indicative of malabsorption issues.

3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has liver cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL
• B. Ammonia 35 mcg/dL
• C. Prothrombin time 16 seconds
• D. Albumin 4 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients with liver cirrhosis, an elevated prothrombin time indicates impaired liver function and decreased production of clotting factors. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not specifically indicate worsening liver cirrhosis. Bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL is normal, ammonia 35 mcg/dL is within the reference range, and albumin 4 g/dL is also within the normal range for this client population.

4. A client with deep vein thrombosis receiving heparin therapy needs monitoring. Which test should the nurse use to regulate the medication dosage?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Fibrinogen levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). aPTT is specifically used to monitor and regulate heparin therapy as it assesses the intrinsic pathway of coagulation, which heparin affects. Options A and B, Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR), are used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Option D, Fibrinogen levels, is not the primary test used to monitor heparin therapy.

5. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following food choices by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich
• B. Grilled chicken and rice
• C. Tomato soup with saltine crackers
• D. Baked fish and steamed vegetables

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, baked fish and steamed vegetables. These food choices are low in potassium and phosphorus, which is important for clients with chronic kidney disease to manage their condition effectively. Grilled chicken and rice (choice B) may be high in phosphorus, tomato soup with saltine crackers (choice C) is high in sodium, and a peanut butter and jelly sandwich (choice A) contains high levels of potassium, all of which are not ideal choices for individuals with chronic kidney disease.

Similar Questions