Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has Cushing's disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Decreased serum glucose level
• B. Increased lymphocyte count
• C. Increased serum potassium level
• D. Decreased serum sodium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In Cushing's disease, there is increased cortisol production, which can lead to various metabolic disturbances. One of the common findings is an increased serum potassium level. The other options are incorrect because Cushing's disease typically causes hyperglycemia, not decreased serum glucose levels (A), lymphocytopenia, not increased lymphocyte count (B), and hyponatremia, not decreased serum sodium level (D).

2. A client with a new diagnosis of hypertension is being taught about lifestyle changes by a nurse. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include?

• A. Limit sodium intake to no more than 1,500 mg per day.
• B. Exercise for at least 150 minutes each week.
• C. Avoid all dairy products.
• D. Limit intake of all carbohydrates.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a client with hypertension is to limit sodium intake to no more than 1,500 mg per day. This helps manage hypertension by reducing fluid retention and lowering blood pressure. Choice B is a good recommendation as well, but the primary focus for hypertension management in this scenario is limiting sodium. Choices C and D are incorrect as dairy products and carbohydrates are not directly linked to hypertension.

3. A client with osteoporosis is being taught about dietary management. Which of the following foods should be recommended?

• A. Almonds
• B. Spinach
• C. Yogurt
• D. Carrots

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Yogurt is a calcium-rich food that helps strengthen bones and should be recommended to clients with osteoporosis. Almonds, spinach, and carrots do not provide as much calcium as yogurt and are not as beneficial for individuals with osteoporosis.

4. Which of the following lab values should the nurse monitor for a patient receiving heparin therapy?

• A. Monitor platelet count
• B. Monitor PT/INR
• C. Monitor aPTT
• D. Monitor CBC

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT for a patient receiving heparin therapy. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to assess and adjust heparin dosage to ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. Monitoring the aPTT helps in preventing both clotting and bleeding complications. Platelet count (Choice A) is important to monitor for patients receiving antiplatelet therapy, not heparin. PT/INR (Choice B) is typically monitored for patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Monitoring the complete blood count (CBC) (Choice D) is essential for various conditions but is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is experiencing preterm contractions and dehydration. Which statement should the nurse make?

• A. Dehydration is treated with calcium supplements.
• B. Dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor.
• C. Dehydration is caused by decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit.
• D. Dehydration causes gastroesophageal reflux.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement is B: 'Dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor.' Dehydration can lead to increased uterine irritability, potentially causing preterm contractions and labor. Choice A is incorrect as dehydration is not treated with calcium supplements but rather with fluids. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration is not caused by decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels but rather by a lack of fluids. Choice D is incorrect as dehydration does not directly cause gastroesophageal reflux.

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