a nurse is caring for a client who has chronic renal disease and is receiving therapy with epoetin alfa which of the following laboratory results shou
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ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A client with chronic renal disease is receiving therapy with epoetin alfa. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse review for an indication of a therapeutic effect of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: The hematocrit (Hct). Monitoring the hematocrit is essential to assess the therapeutic effect of epoetin alfa because this medication stimulates red blood cell production in clients with chronic renal disease. The leukocyte count (choice A) and platelet count (choice B) are not directly affected by epoetin alfa therapy. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (choice D) is a non-specific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor the therapeutic effect of epoetin alfa.

2. A client has a new prescription for Captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients prescribed with Captopril, an ACE inhibitor, are at risk of developing a persistent cough as a common adverse effect. It is essential for the client to inform their healthcare provider promptly if this side effect occurs to evaluate the need for a medication change or adjustment.

3. A client has been prescribed Nitroglycerin patches for angina. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Remove the patch for 12 hours each day.' Nitroglycerin patches should be removed for 12 hours each day to prevent the development of tolerance. This nitrate-free interval ensures the medication remains effective in managing angina. Choice A is incorrect because applying the patch to a different site each time is not necessary; it is more important to ensure a nitrate-free interval. Choice C is incorrect because while consistency in timing is good for medication adherence, the crucial aspect for Nitroglycerin patches is the nitrate-free interval. Choice D is incorrect because cutting the patch in half based on blood pressure control is not a recommended practice and could alter the medication's efficacy.

4. When starting therapy with raloxifene, a client should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hot flashes. When initiating therapy with raloxifene, clients should be advised to monitor for hot flashes as they are a common adverse effect associated with this medication. Hot flashes are a well-known side effect of raloxifene due to its action on estrogen receptors. Leg cramps (Choice A), urinary frequency (Choice C), and hair loss (Choice D) are not typically associated with raloxifene therapy. Therefore, monitoring for hot flashes is crucial to manage and address this common side effect appropriately.

5. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin. The nurse should identify that the concurrent use of which of the following medications increases the client's risk of bleeding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Acetaminophen (Choice C). Acetaminophen, especially in high doses, can increase the risk of bleeding in clients taking Warfarin. It can potentiate the anticoagulant effect of Warfarin, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Vitamin K (Choice A) is actually used to reverse the effects of Warfarin in case of over-anticoagulation, so it does not increase the risk of bleeding. Calcium carbonate (Choice B) and Ranitidine (Choice D) do not significantly interact with Warfarin to increase the risk of bleeding.

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