ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client with chronic renal disease is receiving therapy with epoetin alfa. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse review for an indication of a therapeutic effect of the medication?
- A. The leukocyte count
- B. The platelet count
- C. The hematocrit (Hct)
- D. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The hematocrit (Hct). Monitoring the hematocrit is essential to assess the therapeutic effect of epoetin alfa because this medication stimulates red blood cell production in clients with chronic renal disease. The leukocyte count (choice A) and platelet count (choice B) are not directly affected by epoetin alfa therapy. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (choice D) is a non-specific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor the therapeutic effect of epoetin alfa.
2. A client with heart failure at risk for pulmonary edema should receive which intervention to improve oxygenation?
- A. Place the client in a supine position.
- B. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
- C. Elevate the client's legs when in bed.
- D. Administer oxygen via non-rebreather mask.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering oxygen via a non-rebreather mask is the appropriate intervention for a client at risk for pulmonary edema as it helps improve oxygenation by delivering a high concentration of oxygen. Placing the client in a supine position can exacerbate pulmonary edema by increasing venous return to the heart, leading to fluid overload. Encouraging increased fluid intake is contraindicated in clients with heart failure and at risk for pulmonary edema, as it can worsen fluid accumulation. Elevating the client's legs when in bed is more appropriate for clients with conditions such as venous insufficiency or edema in the lower extremities, not for pulmonary edema.
3. Which action by a patient indicates that the home health nurse�s teaching about glargine and regular insulin has been successful?
- A. The patient administers the glargine 30 minutes before each meal
- B. The patient�s family prefills the syringes with the mix of insulins weekly.
- C. The patient draws up the regular insulin and then the glargine in the same syringe.
- D. The patient disposes of the open vials of glargine and regular insulin after 4 weeks
Correct answer: D
Rationale:
4. A 75-year-old male presents with chest pain on exertion. The chest pain is most likely due to hypoxic injury secondary to:
- A. Malnutrition
- B. Free radicals
- C. Ischemia
- D. Chemical toxicity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ischemia. In this scenario, the 75-year-old male experiences chest pain on exertion, which is indicative of angina. Angina is primarily caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, leading to hypoxic injury. This condition is known as ischemia. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Malnutrition does not typically cause chest pain related to exertion. Free radicals and chemical toxicity are not common causes of chest pain in the context described. Therefore, the most likely cause of chest pain in this case is ischemia due to reduced blood flow.
5. A patient is receiving oral nystatin suspension for a fungal infection of the mouth. Which of the following adverse effects is most likely to be experienced with this form of nystatin?
- A. Local irritation
- B. Burning
- C. Nausea
- D. Urinary urgency
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Local irritation. When using oral nystatin suspension for a fungal infection of the mouth, local irritation is the most likely adverse effect that a patient may experience. Nystatin is generally well-tolerated, but some patients may develop local irritation, such as mouth or throat irritation. Choices B, C, and D are less likely adverse effects of oral nystatin suspension. Burning, nausea, and urinary urgency are not commonly associated with nystatin use for a fungal infection of the mouth.
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