Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective?

• A. Decreased heart rate
• B. Increased energy levels
• C. Weight loss
• D. Improved mental clarity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increased energy levels are a key indicator of the effectiveness of levothyroxine in treating hypothyroidism. Levothyroxine works to regulate thyroid hormone levels, which can lead to improved energy levels as the body's metabolism is restored. While the other options may also improve with treatment, increased energy levels directly reflect the correction of the thyroid hormone imbalance. Decreased heart rate can be an indicator of overmedication, weight loss can be attributed to increased metabolism but may not directly reflect the effectiveness of levothyroxine, and improved mental clarity is a more general cognitive improvement that may not directly relate to thyroid function.

2. What is pharmacodynamics?

• A. The medical reference summarizing standards of drug purity, strength, and directions for synthesis
• B. The drug's actions at receptor sites and the physiological, chemical, and behavioral effects produced by these actions
• C. The maximum response that a drug can produce
• D. Movements of the drugs throughout the body

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pharmacodynamics refers to the drug's actions at receptor sites and the physiological, chemical, and behavioral effects produced by these actions. It involves understanding how drugs interact with the body at the molecular level to produce their effects, including mechanisms of action, receptor binding, and downstream physiological responses. Choice A is incorrect because it describes pharmacopeia, which is a reference book containing standards for drugs. Choice C refers to efficacy, which is the maximum effect a drug can produce. Choice D describes pharmacokinetics, which focuses on the movement of drugs within the body.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication list of a client scheduled for surgery. Which of the following medications places the client at risk for increased bleeding during surgery?

• A. Warfarin
• B. Acetaminophen
• C. Ibuprofen
• D. Aspirin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Aspirin is an anticoagulant that inhibits platelet function, increasing the risk of bleeding during surgery. It is important for the healthcare professional to identify this medication, inform the surgical team, and consider withholding it prior to surgery to reduce the risk of excessive bleeding. Warfarin is also an anticoagulant but can be managed by adjusting the dosage or monitoring INR levels. Acetaminophen and ibuprofen are not associated with increased bleeding risk as they do not affect platelet function like aspirin.

4. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following adverse effects should the client be instructed to monitor for and report to the provider?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Pedal edema
• C. Bruising
• D. Yellow-tinged vision

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Yellow-tinged vision is a potential adverse effect of digoxin, which may indicate toxicity. It is crucial for the client to report this symptom promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent any further complications. Dry cough is not typically associated with digoxin use. Pedal edema is a common symptom of heart failure, which digoxin is prescribed to manage. Bruising is not a common adverse effect of digoxin.

5. A client has a new prescription for Zolpidem. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Notify the provider if you plan to become pregnant.
• B. Take the medication 1 hr before you plan to go to sleep.
• C. Allow at least 6 hr for sleep when taking Zolpidem.
• D. To increase the effectiveness of Zolpidem, take it with a bedtime snack.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Zolpidem is classified under Pregnancy Risk Category C. It is essential for the client to inform the provider if she plans to become pregnant as Zolpidem use during pregnancy may pose risks to the fetus. This precaution allows for appropriate assessment and possible adjustments to the treatment plan to ensure the safety of both the client and the developing baby. Choice B is incorrect because Zolpidem is usually taken immediately before bedtime, not 1 hour before. Choice C is incorrect as Zolpidem is known for its quick onset of action, and the client does not need to allocate a specific amount of time for sleep. Choice D is incorrect as taking Zolpidem with food, especially a bedtime snack, may delay its onset of action.

Similar Questions