a nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and reports nausea the nurse should identify that this client is at risk for which of th
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and reports nausea. The nurse should identify that this client is at risk for which of the following imbalances?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metabolic acidosis. Clients with chronic kidney disease are at risk for metabolic acidosis because the kidneys are unable to effectively excrete acids, leading to an accumulation of acid in the body. This metabolic imbalance can result in symptoms like nausea. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Metabolic alkalosis is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Respiratory alkalosis is more commonly seen in conditions such as hyperventilation. Respiratory acidosis, on the other hand, is often linked to conditions affecting the lungs or respiratory system, not primarily kidney disease.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A temperature of 38.8°C (101.8°F) is above the normal range and may indicate infection, which should be reported. Elevated temperature postoperatively can be a sign of infection, especially in the early postoperative period. Serosanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is expected in the early postoperative period. A heart rate of 88/min and a blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg are within normal ranges and do not necessarily indicate a complication postoperatively.

3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is experiencing preterm contractions and dehydration. Which statement should the nurse make?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement is B: 'Dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor.' Dehydration can lead to increased uterine irritability, potentially causing preterm contractions and labor. Choice A is incorrect as dehydration is not treated with calcium supplements but rather with fluids. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration is not caused by decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels but rather by a lack of fluids. Choice D is incorrect as dehydration does not directly cause gastroesophageal reflux.

4. What is the best method to monitor fluid balance in a patient receiving diuretics?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best method to monitor fluid balance in a patient receiving diuretics is to monitor daily weight. Daily weighing is a precise way to assess changes in fluid status as it reflects variations in total body water. Monitoring intake and output (choice B) is also important but may not provide as accurate a measurement as daily weight. Monitoring blood pressure (choice C) is essential but does not directly measure fluid balance. Monitoring edema (choice D) is helpful to assess fluid status visually but may not be as sensitive as daily weight measurements in detecting subtle changes in fluid balance.

5. A client who is 14 weeks of gestation reports swelling of the face. What should the nurse do next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to report this finding to the provider immediately. Swelling of the face in pregnancy can be a sign of preeclampsia, a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to another organ system, often the kidneys. Prompt reporting and intervention are crucial to prevent complications for both the client and the fetus. Administering an analgesic (choice A) is not appropriate for this situation as it does not address the underlying cause of the swelling. Administering an antiemetic (choice C) is used to treat nausea and vomiting, which are not the primary concerns associated with facial swelling in this scenario. Monitoring the client's vital signs (choice D) is important but should be done after reporting the finding to the provider to guide further assessment and management.

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