Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and reports nausea. The nurse should identify that this client is at risk for which of the following imbalances?

• A. Metabolic alkalosis
• B. Metabolic acidosis
• C. Respiratory alkalosis
• D. Respiratory acidosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metabolic acidosis. Clients with chronic kidney disease are at risk for metabolic acidosis because the kidneys are unable to effectively excrete acids, leading to an accumulation of acid in the body. This metabolic imbalance can result in symptoms like nausea. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Metabolic alkalosis is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Respiratory alkalosis is more commonly seen in conditions such as hyperventilation. Respiratory acidosis, on the other hand, is often linked to conditions affecting the lungs or respiratory system, not primarily kidney disease.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who has chronic kidney disease about managing protein intake. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You should consume more plant-based protein.
• B. You should increase your intake of animal protein.
• C. You should increase your intake of high-protein foods.
• D. You should limit your intake of high-protein foods.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: "You should limit your intake of high-protein foods." Clients with chronic kidney disease should reduce their intake of high-protein foods to lessen the workload on the kidneys and prevent further kidney damage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because increasing intake of either plant-based or animal protein or high-protein foods can exacerbate kidney issues in individuals with chronic kidney disease.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Serum sodium.
• B. Serum glucose.
• C. Serum potassium.
• D. Serum calcium.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, meaning it can lead to potassium loss in the body. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of furosemide and prevent hypokalemia. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not directly affect sodium, glucose, or calcium levels in the same way it impacts potassium levels.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has anemia and a hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Jaundice.
• B. Bradycardia.
• C. Tachypnea.
• D. Hypertension.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachypnea. Anemia leads to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity due to low hemoglobin levels, prompting the body to increase respiratory rate to enhance oxygen uptake. Jaundice (choice A) is associated with liver issues, not anemia. Bradycardia (choice B) and Hypertension (choice D) are not typically expected findings in clients with anemia; instead, tachycardia may occur as the body compensates for the decreased oxygen delivery.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a hip arthroplasty. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report?

• A. Heart rate of 90/min
• B. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
• C. Warmth and redness in the calf
• D. Pink-tinged urine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, warmth and redness in the calf. These symptoms may indicate a deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a serious complication following hip arthroplasty that requires immediate attention. A heart rate of 90/min and blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg are within normal ranges for a postoperative client and do not indicate an urgent issue. Pink-tinged urine may suggest blood in the urine, which should be monitored but is not as critical as the potential DVT.

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