a nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and reports nausea the nurse should identify that this client is at risk for which of th
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and reports nausea. The nurse should identify that this client is at risk for which of the following imbalances?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metabolic acidosis. Clients with chronic kidney disease are at risk for metabolic acidosis because the kidneys are unable to effectively excrete acids, leading to an accumulation of acid in the body. This metabolic imbalance can result in symptoms like nausea. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Metabolic alkalosis is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Respiratory alkalosis is more commonly seen in conditions such as hyperventilation. Respiratory acidosis, on the other hand, is often linked to conditions affecting the lungs or respiratory system, not primarily kidney disease.

2. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient with hyperkalemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer calcium gluconate. In hyperkalemia, the priority is to protect the heart from potential complications like arrhythmias. Calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment as it stabilizes the cardiac cell membrane. Insulin (Choice B) and sodium bicarbonate (Choice C) can be used in conjunction with other treatments to shift potassium into cells, but calcium gluconate is the priority. Administering a diuretic (Choice D) is not the primary intervention for hyperkalemia and can even worsen the condition by reducing potassium excretion.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse on managing hypoglycemia. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Consume 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate. Consuming 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as glucose tablets or juice, helps raise blood glucose levels quickly in cases of hypoglycemia. Choice A is incorrect because avoiding carbohydrate-rich foods during hypoglycemia can worsen the condition. Choice C is incorrect as drinking water does not effectively raise blood glucose levels. Choice D is incorrect as eating a snack before exercising is more related to preventing exercise-induced hypoglycemia, not managing hypoglycemia.

4. A client who has glaucoma and a new prescription for timolol eyedrops is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because placing pressure on the corner of the eye after using the drops helps in better absorption. Option A is incorrect because eye drops should be placed in the conjunctival sac, not the center of the eye. Option C is incorrect because tears turning red is not an expected outcome of using timolol eyedrops. Option D is incorrect because timolol eyedrops should not appear cloudy.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a gastric bypass. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a postoperative client, a urine output of 30 mL/hr is a concerning finding as it indicates oliguria, which may suggest dehydration or kidney impairment. Adequate urine output is essential for monitoring renal function and overall fluid status. A heart rate of 78/min is within the normal range for an adult. An oxygen saturation of 95% is acceptable and indicates adequate oxygenation. Serosanguineous wound drainage is expected in the early postoperative period and is not a cause for immediate concern unless it becomes excessive or changes character.

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