a nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and reports nausea the nurse should identify that this client is at risk for which of th
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and reports nausea. The nurse should identify that this client is at risk for which of the following imbalances?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metabolic acidosis. Clients with chronic kidney disease are at risk for metabolic acidosis because the kidneys are unable to effectively excrete acids, leading to an accumulation of acid in the body. This metabolic imbalance can result in symptoms like nausea. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Metabolic alkalosis is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Respiratory alkalosis is more commonly seen in conditions such as hyperventilation. Respiratory acidosis, on the other hand, is often linked to conditions affecting the lungs or respiratory system, not primarily kidney disease.

2. A nurse is assessing a client in active labor. The FHR baseline has been 100/min for 15 minutes. What condition should the nurse suspect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, with a fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline of 100/min for 15 minutes, the nurse should suspect maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can result in fetal bradycardia, which is defined as an FHR less than 110 beats per minute. Maternal hypoglycemia requires prompt intervention to prevent adverse outcomes for both the mother and the fetus. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia rather than bradycardia in the fetus. Fetal anemia (Choice B) is more likely to present with other signs such as pallor or tachycardia rather than bradycardia. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) is characterized by maternal fever, uterine tenderness, and foul-smelling amniotic fluid, but it is not directly linked to the FHR baseline being 100/min.

3. A nurse is administering medications to a group of clients. Which of the following occurrences requires the completion of an incident report?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. When a client receives antibiotics 2 hours late, it constitutes a medication error, requiring the completion of an incident report. Choice B, a client vomiting within 20 minutes of taking medications, does not necessarily require an incident report unless it is suspected to be related to a medication error. Choice C, a client requesting a statin at a specific time, and choice D, a client asking for pain medication an hour early, are not incidents that mandate the completion of an incident report unless there are specific circumstances indicating otherwise.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Chicken breast. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Foods high in potassium, like spinach and yogurt, should be avoided when taking spironolactone to prevent hyperkalemia. Chicken breast, being a low-potassium protein source, is a suitable recommendation for clients on spironolactone therapy.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a client. Which of the following actions should the provider take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct answer: When administering an intramuscular injection, the needle should be inserted at a 90-degree angle to ensure proper delivery of the medication into the muscle tissue. Option B is incorrect because a 45-degree angle is typically used for subcutaneous injections, not intramuscular. Option C is incorrect as aspiration is not recommended for intramuscular injections. Option D is incorrect as massaging the site after an intramuscular injection can cause tissue damage or interfere with the absorption of the medication.

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