a nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and reports nausea the nurse should identify that this client is at risk for which of th
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and reports nausea. The nurse should identify that this client is at risk for which of the following imbalances?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metabolic acidosis. Clients with chronic kidney disease are at risk for metabolic acidosis because the kidneys are unable to effectively excrete acids, leading to an accumulation of acid in the body. This metabolic imbalance can result in symptoms like nausea. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Metabolic alkalosis is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Respiratory alkalosis is more commonly seen in conditions such as hyperventilation. Respiratory acidosis, on the other hand, is often linked to conditions affecting the lungs or respiratory system, not primarily kidney disease.

2. A client is being taught about a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients taking furosemide should avoid alcohol because it can lead to dehydration and potential interactions with the medication. Choices A and B are incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that can actually lower potassium levels, so the client should not expect an increase in potassium levels or solely rely on bananas for potassium intake. Choice C is incorrect because a cough is not a common side effect of furosemide and should not be a reason to stop taking the medication.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes insipidus. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increased urine output is a key finding in clients with diabetes insipidus due to a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone. Weight gain (choice A) is not expected in diabetes insipidus as it is a condition characterized by excessive thirst and urination leading to fluid loss. Bradycardia (choice C) and hyperactive bowel sounds (choice D) are not typically associated with diabetes insipidus.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical records of a client with chronic heart failure. What dietary recommendation should the nurse make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Follow a 3g sodium diet. For clients with chronic heart failure, limiting sodium intake is crucial to prevent fluid retention and exacerbation of heart failure symptoms. High sodium intake can lead to fluid buildup, causing the heart to work harder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Drinking excessive fluid can worsen fluid retention in heart failure, elevating the workload of the heart. Placing the client's lower extremities on two pillows is a positioning intervention to alleviate edema, not a dietary recommendation. Maintaining oxygen saturation at 89% is more related to respiratory status rather than dietary management of chronic heart failure.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 5.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is elevated and should be monitored in clients taking spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing medication. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial as spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by spironolactone. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on monitoring the potassium levels in this scenario.

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