ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and reports nausea. The nurse should identify that this client is at risk for which of the following imbalances?
- A. Metabolic alkalosis
- B. Metabolic acidosis
- C. Respiratory alkalosis
- D. Respiratory acidosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metabolic acidosis. Clients with chronic kidney disease are at risk for metabolic acidosis because the kidneys are unable to effectively excrete acids, leading to an accumulation of acid in the body. This metabolic imbalance can result in symptoms like nausea. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Metabolic alkalosis is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Respiratory alkalosis is more commonly seen in conditions such as hyperventilation. Respiratory acidosis, on the other hand, is often linked to conditions affecting the lungs or respiratory system, not primarily kidney disease.
2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication in the morning.
- B. You may experience a persistent cough while taking this medication.
- C. Avoid taking this medication with a potassium supplement.
- D. Take this medication with a full glass of water.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'You may experience a persistent cough while taking this medication.' Lisinopril is known to cause a persistent cough as a common side effect. It is essential for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect, as it should be reported to the healthcare provider. Choice A is incorrect because lisinopril is usually taken once daily, but not necessarily at bedtime. Choice C is incorrect because lisinopril can actually increase potassium levels, so taking it with a potassium supplement may lead to hyperkalemia. Choice D is incorrect because antacids may reduce the effectiveness of lisinopril, so it should not be taken with them.
3. A client with a new diagnosis of hypertension is receiving discharge teaching. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will take my medication only when I feel dizzy.
- B. I will check my blood pressure at least once a week.
- C. I will limit my saturated fat intake to 7% of daily calories.
- D. I will take my medication only when I have symptoms.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because limiting saturated fat intake to 7% of daily calories is a crucial component of the dietary management for hypertension. This dietary modification helps reduce the risk of cardiovascular complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because medication adherence should not be based on symptoms like dizziness. Choice B is inadequate as blood pressure monitoring should be more frequent, preferably daily, for effective management of hypertension. Choice D is incorrect because medication for hypertension should be taken consistently as prescribed, not just when symptoms occur.
4. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with meals to prevent nausea.
- B. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
- C. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
- D. Monitor for signs of infection.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Monitor for signs of infection.' Clopidogrel affects platelet levels, increasing the risk of bleeding. Therefore, it is essential for clients taking clopidogrel to monitor for signs of infection, which could indicate a lowered immune response. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the specific monitoring needs associated with clopidogrel therapy.
5. A nurse is assessing a newborn's heart rate. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Auscultate the apical pulse and count for 1 minute
- B. Place a sensor on the index finger
- C. Heat the skin prior to placing the probe
- D. Recheck after 10 minutes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Auscultating the apical pulse and counting for one minute is the appropriate method to accurately measure a newborn's heart rate. The apical pulse is located at the point of maximum impulse (PMI), which is usually at the fourth or fifth intercostal space along the mid-clavicular line. This method allows for a precise assessment of the newborn's heart rate. Choice B, placing a sensor on the index finger, is incorrect because this method is more suitable for measuring oxygen saturation rather than heart rate. Choice C, heating the skin prior to placing the probe, is unnecessary for assessing heart rate and may lead to potential burns in newborns. Choice D, rechecking after 10 minutes, is not appropriate as immediate assessment and intervention may be required if an abnormal heart rate is detected in a newborn.
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