ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and reports nausea. The nurse should identify that this client is at risk for which of the following imbalances?
- A. Metabolic alkalosis
- B. Metabolic acidosis
- C. Respiratory alkalosis
- D. Respiratory acidosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metabolic acidosis. Clients with chronic kidney disease are at risk for metabolic acidosis because the kidneys are unable to effectively excrete acids, leading to an accumulation of acid in the body. This metabolic imbalance can result in symptoms like nausea. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Metabolic alkalosis is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Respiratory alkalosis is more commonly seen in conditions such as hyperventilation. Respiratory acidosis, on the other hand, is often linked to conditions affecting the lungs or respiratory system, not primarily kidney disease.
2. A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. Which result is reportable?
- A. Herpes simplex
- B. Human papillomavirus
- C. Candidiasis
- D. Chlamydia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chlamydia is a reportable sexually transmitted infection. Reporting cases of Chlamydia to the health department is crucial for disease surveillance, contact tracing, and implementing public health interventions. Herpes simplex, human papillomavirus, and candidiasis are not typically reportable infections, as they do not pose the same public health risks as Chlamydia.
3. What is the initial action for a healthcare provider when a patient presents with shortness of breath?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Reposition the patient
- C. Check for abnormal breath sounds
- D. Check oxygen saturation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the initial action for a healthcare provider when a patient presents with shortness of breath because it helps alleviate the patient's symptoms by improving oxygenation. Providing oxygen takes precedence over other actions such as repositioning the patient, checking for abnormal breath sounds, or assessing oxygen saturation. While these actions are important, ensuring the patient has an adequate oxygen supply is crucial in the initial management of shortness of breath.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 36 weeks gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Proteinuria of 1+.
- B. Blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg.
- C. Respiratory rate of 18/min.
- D. Nonpitting ankle edema.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nonpitting ankle edema is a concerning sign of worsening preeclampsia due to fluid retention and should be reported immediately. Proteinuria of 1+ is a common finding in preeclampsia. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg is within normal limits. A respiratory rate of 18/min is also within normal range. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are not as urgent as nonpitting ankle edema in this scenario.
5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who has been receiving lithium carbonate for the past 12 months. The nurse notes a lithium level of 0.8 mEq/L. Which of the following orders from the provider should the nurse expect?
- A. Withhold the next dose.
- B. Increase the dosage.
- C. Discontinue the medication.
- D. Administer the medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering the medication is appropriate for a stable lithium level of 0.8 mEq/L. A level of 0.8 mEq/L falls within the therapeutic range for lithium, indicating that the client is receiving an adequate dose to maintain therapeutic effects. Withholding the next dose, increasing the dosage, or discontinuing the medication would not be indicated at this lithium level as it is within the desired range for therapeutic benefit. Therefore, the correct action would be to continue administering the medication to ensure the client maintains the therapeutic level of lithium.
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