Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and reports nausea. The nurse should identify that this client is at risk for which of the following imbalances?

• A. Metabolic alkalosis
• B. Metabolic acidosis
• C. Respiratory alkalosis
• D. Respiratory acidosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metabolic acidosis. Clients with chronic kidney disease are at risk for metabolic acidosis because the kidneys are unable to effectively excrete acids, leading to an accumulation of acid in the body. This metabolic imbalance can result in symptoms like nausea. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Metabolic alkalosis is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Respiratory alkalosis is more commonly seen in conditions such as hyperventilation. Respiratory acidosis, on the other hand, is often linked to conditions affecting the lungs or respiratory system, not primarily kidney disease.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin transdermal patches. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply the patch to your upper arm.
• B. You should remove the patch before showering.
• C. Rotate the patch site each time you apply it.
• D. Apply the patch to your lower abdomen.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to rotate the patch site each time they apply it. This practice helps prevent skin irritation and ensures the effectiveness of nitroglycerin transdermal patches. Applying the patch to the same site each time can lead to skin irritation and decreased patch efficacy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because applying the patch to the upper arm, removing it before showering, and placing it on the lower abdomen do not promote proper rotation of patch sites, which is essential for optimal outcomes.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for digoxin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to identify an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Potassium 3.5 mEq/L
• B. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• C. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
• D. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium 3.5 mEq/L. Digoxin can cause hypokalemia as an adverse effect. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial because low potassium levels can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly associated with potential adverse effects of digoxin. Sodium levels are not typically affected by digoxin, calcium levels are not a primary concern with digoxin therapy, and magnesium levels are not the most important to monitor for digoxin adverse effects.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss in the urine, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients taking furosemide and requires close monitoring. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, or hypercalcemia as frequently as it causes hypokalemia.

5. A client is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 90/min
• B. Temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F)
• C. Serosanguineous wound drainage
• D. Urine output of 25 mL/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output of 25 mL/hr is a sign of oliguria, which may indicate dehydration or kidney impairment and should be reported. A heart rate of 90/min is within the normal range (60-100/min) for adults at rest and may be expected postoperatively. A temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F) is within the normal range (36.1-37.2°C or 97-99°F) and does not indicate an immediate concern. Serosanguineous wound drainage is a common finding postoperatively and indicates a normal healing process.

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