a nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and reports nausea the nurse should identify that this client is at risk for which of th a nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and reports nausea the nurse should identify that this client is at risk for which of th
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and reports nausea. The nurse should identify that this client is at risk for which of the following imbalances?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metabolic acidosis. Clients with chronic kidney disease are at risk for metabolic acidosis because the kidneys are unable to effectively excrete acids, leading to an accumulation of acid in the body. This metabolic imbalance can result in symptoms like nausea. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Metabolic alkalosis is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Respiratory alkalosis is more commonly seen in conditions such as hyperventilation. Respiratory acidosis, on the other hand, is often linked to conditions affecting the lungs or respiratory system, not primarily kidney disease.

2. A nurse is providing prenatal education to a client who is in the second trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Calcium intake is crucial during pregnancy to support fetal bone development. The nurse should educate the client to increase their calcium intake. Choice A is incorrect because fetal movements are usually felt around 18-25 weeks, not at 12 weeks. Choice C is incorrect as exercise is generally encouraged during pregnancy, including the second trimester, as long as it is not high-impact or risky. Choice D is incorrect as folic acid intake is essential during pregnancy to prevent neural tube defects, and pregnant individuals are usually advised to increase their folic acid intake.

3. The Army Medical Department has four major functions. Three are prevention, treatment, and evacuation. What is the fourth?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Mobilization.' Mobilization is the fourth major function of the Army Medical Department. This involves preparing and organizing medical resources and personnel for deployment during military operations. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they are important aspects in military healthcare, they do not represent the fourth major function of the Army Medical Department as specifically requested in the question.

4. Newborn Mariana, who reacts strongly to unpleasant stimuli, is __________.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Newborn Mariana, who reacts strongly to unpleasant stimuli, is described as susceptible to colic. Colic is often characterized by excessive crying and fussiness in newborn babies, which can be challenging to console. This description suggests that Mariana's strong reactions to unpleasant stimuli may make her more prone to colic. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the strong reactions to unpleasant stimuli do not imply being easy to console, affect REM sleep, or responsiveness to swaddling.

5. A client has deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to elevate the affected extremity above the level of the heart. This position promotes venous return, reduces swelling, and helps prevent complications such as pulmonary embolism. Applying cold compresses (choice A) can vasoconstrict blood vessels, potentially worsening the condition. Massaging the affected extremity (choice B) can dislodge the clot and lead to serious complications. Keeping the affected extremity dependent when sitting (choice D) can hinder venous return and exacerbate the DVT.

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