ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and reports nausea. The nurse should identify that this client is at risk for which of the following imbalances?
- A. Metabolic alkalosis
- B. Metabolic acidosis
- C. Respiratory alkalosis
- D. Respiratory acidosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metabolic acidosis. Clients with chronic kidney disease are at risk for metabolic acidosis because the kidneys are unable to effectively excrete acids, leading to an accumulation of acid in the body. This metabolic imbalance can result in symptoms like nausea. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Metabolic alkalosis is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Respiratory alkalosis is more commonly seen in conditions such as hyperventilation. Respiratory acidosis, on the other hand, is often linked to conditions affecting the lungs or respiratory system, not primarily kidney disease.
2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical records of a client with a prescription for combination oral contraceptives. Which of the following conditions is a contraindication?
- A. Hyperthyroidism
- B. Thrombophlebitis
- C. Diverticulosis
- D. Hypocalcemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Thrombophlebitis is a contraindication to combination oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of thromboembolic events. Hyperthyroidism, diverticulosis, and hypocalcemia are not contraindications to combination oral contraceptives. Hyperthyroidism may affect thyroid hormone levels but does not directly contraindicate oral contraceptives. Diverticulosis is a condition related to the digestive system and does not impact the use of oral contraceptives. Hypocalcemia, a low calcium level in the blood, is not a contraindication for oral contraceptives.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is 24 hours postoperative following an open cholecystectomy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Urinary output of 100 mL in 4 hours
- B. Serosanguineous wound drainage
- C. Heart rate of 94/min
- D. WBC count of 15,000/mm³
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A WBC count of 15,000/mm³ is elevated and may indicate infection, which should be reported. High WBC count is a sign of inflammation or infection, and in a postoperative client, it can be indicative of surgical site infection or another complication. Urinary output, serosanguineous wound drainage, and a heart rate of 94/min are all within normal ranges for a client post cholecystectomy and do not raise immediate concerns for infection or complications.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Albumin 3.5 g/dL
- B. Bilirubin 1.0 mg/dL
- C. INR 3.0
- D. Ammonia 80 mcg/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An INR of 3.0 is elevated, indicating impaired blood clotting function, which poses a significant risk of bleeding in clients with cirrhosis. This finding should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A (Albumin 3.5 g/dL) is within the normal range and indicates adequate liver synthetic function, so it does not require immediate reporting. Choice B (Bilirubin 1.0 mg/dL) is also within the normal range and typically seen in clients without significant liver dysfunction, so it does not need urgent attention. Choice D (Ammonia 80 mcg/dL) is elevated, but it is not the priority finding in cirrhosis; elevated ammonia levels are associated with hepatic encephalopathy rather than increased bleeding risk.
5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client receiving morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Diarrhea.
- B. Urinary retention.
- C. Hypotension.
- D. Bradycardia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Hypotension is a common adverse effect of morphine due to its vasodilatory properties. It can lead to a drop in blood pressure, which should be closely monitored during administration. Diarrhea (Choice A) is not a typical adverse effect of morphine. Urinary retention (Choice B) is a side effect of morphine due to its impact on the bladder muscles, but it is not classified as an adverse effect. Bradycardia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of morphine; instead, it tends to cause tachycardia.
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