a nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and reports nausea the nurse should identify that this client is at risk for which of th
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and reports nausea. The nurse should identify that this client is at risk for which of the following imbalances?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metabolic acidosis. Clients with chronic kidney disease are at risk for metabolic acidosis because the kidneys are unable to effectively excrete acids, leading to an accumulation of acid in the body. This metabolic imbalance can result in symptoms like nausea. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Metabolic alkalosis is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Respiratory alkalosis is more commonly seen in conditions such as hyperventilation. Respiratory acidosis, on the other hand, is often linked to conditions affecting the lungs or respiratory system, not primarily kidney disease.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a gastric bypass. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a postoperative client, a urine output of 30 mL/hr is a concerning finding as it indicates oliguria, which may suggest dehydration or kidney impairment. Adequate urine output is essential for monitoring renal function and overall fluid status. A heart rate of 78/min is within the normal range for an adult. An oxygen saturation of 95% is acceptable and indicates adequate oxygenation. Serosanguineous wound drainage is expected in the early postoperative period and is not a cause for immediate concern unless it becomes excessive or changes character.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has unilateral paralysis and dysphagia following a right hemispheric stroke. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Placing the client's left arm on a pillow while they are sitting helps prevent shoulder displacement and provides support for the limb post-stroke. This positioning is important to maintain proper alignment and prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because placing food on the left side of the mouth, providing total assistance with ADLs, and maintaining the client on bed rest do not directly address the specific needs related to unilateral paralysis and dysphagia post right hemispheric stroke.

4. A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which of the following foods should the healthcare provider instruct the client to avoid?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, oatmeal. Oatmeal contains insoluble fiber, which can exacerbate the symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome. Choices A, B, and C are not typically problematic for individuals with IBS. Lean cuts of pork, low-fat yogurt, and white bread are generally well-tolerated and may even be recommended as part of a balanced diet for individuals with IBS.

5. A client with a new diagnosis of Crohn's disease is being taught about dietary management by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to advise the client to eat small, frequent meals to reduce symptoms of Crohn's disease. This eating pattern can help manage symptoms by reducing the workload on the digestive system. Choice A is incorrect because foods high in fiber can aggravate symptoms in Crohn's disease. Choice B is incorrect because not all individuals with Crohn's disease need to avoid dairy products, and it is not a universal recommendation. Choice D is incorrect because increasing whole grains may not be suitable for everyone with Crohn's disease, as it can worsen symptoms in some cases.

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