a nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and reports nausea the nurse should identify that this client is at risk for which of th
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and reports nausea. The nurse should identify that this client is at risk for which of the following imbalances?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metabolic acidosis. Clients with chronic kidney disease are at risk for metabolic acidosis because the kidneys are unable to effectively excrete acids, leading to an accumulation of acid in the body. This metabolic imbalance can result in symptoms like nausea. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Metabolic alkalosis is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Respiratory alkalosis is more commonly seen in conditions such as hyperventilation. Respiratory acidosis, on the other hand, is often linked to conditions affecting the lungs or respiratory system, not primarily kidney disease.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has osteoarthritis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with osteoarthritis is to apply heat to affected joints to reduce stiffness. Heat application helps improve circulation, relax muscles, and reduce discomfort in joints affected by osteoarthritis. Administering opioids routinely (Choice A) is not the first-line treatment for osteoarthritis and carries risks of dependency and side effects. Instructing the client to avoid weight-bearing exercises (Choice B) may lead to muscle weakness and reduced joint flexibility. Avoiding physical activity altogether (Choice D) can lead to further joint stiffness and compromised overall health.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when caring for a client experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal is to administer lorazepam as prescribed. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used to prevent seizures and manage agitation in clients undergoing alcohol withdrawal. Administering haloperidol (Choice A) is not recommended in alcohol withdrawal as it may lower the seizure threshold. Keeping the client in a supine position (Choice B) is not specifically indicated in managing alcohol withdrawal. Encouraging the client to drink fluids with meals (Choice D) is important for hydration but does not address the acute symptoms of alcohol withdrawal.

4. A client with a new prescription for furosemide should increase intake of which of the following?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'You should increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.' Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, which means it can lead to low potassium levels in the body. Increasing intake of potassium-rich foods helps counteract this effect. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide should not necessarily be taken on an empty stomach, at bedtime, or specifically avoided with food.

5. While caring for a client receiving a blood transfusion who reports chills, which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client reports chills during a blood transfusion is to stop the transfusion. Chills can indicate a transfusion reaction, which is a potentially serious situation. Stopping the transfusion immediately is crucial to prevent further complications. Administering acetaminophen or checking the client's blood pressure can come after ensuring the safety of the client by stopping the transfusion. Notifying the provider is important, but the immediate priority is to stop the transfusion.

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