Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and reports nausea. The nurse should identify that this client is at risk for which of the following imbalances?

• A. Metabolic alkalosis
• B. Metabolic acidosis
• C. Respiratory alkalosis
• D. Respiratory acidosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Metabolic acidosis. Clients with chronic kidney disease are at risk for metabolic acidosis because the kidneys are unable to effectively excrete acids, leading to an accumulation of acid in the body. This metabolic imbalance can result in symptoms like nausea. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Metabolic alkalosis is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Respiratory alkalosis is more commonly seen in conditions such as hyperventilation. Respiratory acidosis, on the other hand, is often linked to conditions affecting the lungs or respiratory system, not primarily kidney disease.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who is 6 hours postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Place a wedge under the client's affected leg.
• B. Keep the client's hip flexed at a 90° angle.
• C. Position the client with the legs extended and the hip externally rotated.
• D. Keep the client's leg abductor pillow in place while in bed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In caring for a client 6 hours postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty, it is crucial to keep the leg abductor pillow in place while in bed. This intervention helps prevent hip dislocation by maintaining proper alignment and stability of the hip joint. Placing a wedge under the client's affected leg (Choice A) may not provide adequate support and could potentially compromise the surgical site. Keeping the client's hip flexed at a 90° angle (Choice B) or positioning the client with the legs extended and the hip externally rotated (Choice C) are not recommended post total hip arthroplasty as they may increase the risk of hip dislocation.

3. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse do next?

• A. Monitor the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis.
• B. Administer flumazenil to the client.
• C. Evaluate the client for further suicidal behavior.
• D. Initiate seizure precautions for the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering flumazenil is the priority to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose. Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that can rapidly reverse the sedative effects of diazepam. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis is important but not the immediate priority in this situation. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior is important for comprehensive care but is not the most urgent action at this moment. Initiating seizure precautions may be necessary, but the priority is to counteract the sedative effects of diazepam with flumazenil.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following should the nurse identify as a manifestation of pulmonary congestion?

• A. Frothy, pink sputum
• B. Jugular vein distention
• C. Weight gain
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Frothy, pink sputum is a classic sign of pulmonary congestion in left-sided heart failure. This occurs due to the accumulation of fluid in the lungs, leading to the coughing up of frothy, pink-tinged sputum. Jugular vein distention (choice B) is more indicative of right-sided heart failure, where fluid backs up into the systemic circulation. Weight gain (choice C) may occur due to fluid retention, but it is not a direct manifestation of pulmonary congestion. Bradypnea (choice D) refers to abnormally slow breathing and is not specifically associated with pulmonary congestion.

5. What lab value should a healthcare provider monitor for a patient on warfarin therapy?

• A. Potassium
• B. PT/INR
• C. Sodium
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: PT/INR. When a patient is on warfarin therapy, healthcare providers monitor the PT/INR levels to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment and assess the risk of bleeding. Monitoring potassium, sodium, or calcium levels is not directly related to warfarin therapy and would not provide the necessary information needed to manage the medication effectively.

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