ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. A client receiving radiation therapy for breast cancer may experience which of the following side effects that the nurse should monitor for?
- A. Fatigue
- B. Nausea
- C. Skin irritation
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During radiation therapy for breast cancer, one common side effect is skin irritation due to the impact of radiation on the skin cells. This side effect should be closely monitored by the nurse. Fatigue may also occur as a side effect of radiation therapy, but skin irritation is more specific to the treatment area and is a priority in this case. Nausea and weight gain are not typically associated with radiation therapy for breast cancer, making them incorrect choices.
2. How should a healthcare professional care for a patient with a stage 2 pressure ulcer?
- A. Clean the area with normal saline
- B. Apply antibiotic ointment
- C. Use a hydrocolloid dressing
- D. Change the dressing daily
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Using a hydrocolloid dressing is the appropriate care for a stage 2 pressure ulcer because it provides a moist healing environment, promotes healing, and helps to prevent infection. Cleaning the area with normal saline (Choice A) is important but not the primary treatment for a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Applying antibiotic ointment (Choice B) may not be necessary unless there is a sign of infection. Changing the dressing daily (Choice D) may disrupt the healing process and is not recommended unless the dressing is soiled or compromised.
3. A client has a new ileostomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Apply a skin barrier around the stoma.
- B. Empty the pouch when it is one-third full.
- C. Change the entire pouching system weekly.
- D. Cleanse the peristomal skin with alcohol.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Changing the entire pouching system weekly is essential for maintaining skin integrity and preventing infection. Option A is incorrect as applying a skin barrier should be done during the pouch change, not separately. Option B is incorrect as ileostomy pouches should be emptied when they are one-third to one-half full to prevent leakage. Option D is incorrect because cleansing the peristomal skin with alcohol can be too harsh and may cause skin irritation.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for developing a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Massage the client's legs every 2 hours.
- B. Instruct the client to sit with the legs crossed.
- C. Administer prophylactic antibiotics.
- D. Apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Apply sequential compression devices to the client's legs. Sequential compression devices help prevent venous stasis and reduce the risk of DVT by promoting blood flow in the legs. Massaging the client's legs every 2 hours (choice A) may dislodge a clot if present, leading to a higher risk of embolism. Instructing the client to sit with the legs crossed (choice B) can impede blood flow and increase the risk of DVT. Administering prophylactic antibiotics (choice C) is not indicated for preventing DVT, as antibiotics are used to treat infections caused by bacteria, not to prevent blood clots.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation following an amniocentesis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?
- A. Vomiting.
- B. Hypertension.
- C. Epigastric pain.
- D. Contractions.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Following an amniocentesis at 33 weeks of gestation, the nurse should monitor the client for contractions. Contractions can indicate preterm labor, which requires immediate attention. Vomiting, hypertension, and epigastric pain are not typically associated with amniocentesis complications at this gestational age.
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