Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving radiation therapy for breast cancer may experience which of the following side effects that the nurse should monitor for?

• A. Fatigue
• B. Nausea
• C. Skin irritation
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During radiation therapy for breast cancer, one common side effect is skin irritation due to the impact of radiation on the skin cells. This side effect should be closely monitored by the nurse. Fatigue may also occur as a side effect of radiation therapy, but skin irritation is more specific to the treatment area and is a priority in this case. Nausea and weight gain are not typically associated with radiation therapy for breast cancer, making them incorrect choices.

2. What is the most important intervention for a patient with suspected DVT?

• A. Administer anticoagulants
• B. Monitor oxygen levels
• C. Apply compression stockings
• D. Encourage ambulation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer anticoagulants. Administering anticoagulants is crucial in the management of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as it helps prevent the clot from growing larger or dislodging, potentially causing a life-threatening pulmonary embolism. While monitoring oxygen levels, applying compression stockings, and encouraging ambulation are important aspects of DVT management, administering anticoagulants is the most critical intervention to prevent further complications.

3. A client is receiving continuous IV nitroprusside for severe hypertension. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Keep calcium gluconate at the bedside.
• B. Monitor blood pressure every 2 hours.
• C. Limit IV exposure to light.
• D. Attach an inline filter to the IV tubing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to limit IV exposure to light. Nitroprusside is light-sensitive, and exposure to light can lead to its degradation, potentially reducing its efficacy in treating severe hypertension. Keeping calcium gluconate at the bedside (Choice A) is not directly related to managing nitroprusside infusion. While monitoring blood pressure every 2 hours (Choice B) is important in managing hypertension, it is not the immediate action required to ensure medication efficacy. Attaching an inline filter to the IV tubing (Choice D) may help filter particles but does not address the critical concern of light sensitivity associated with nitroprusside administration.

4. What should the healthcare provider monitor for a patient receiving furosemide?

• A. Monitor urine output
• B. Monitor blood pressure
• C. Monitor potassium levels
• D. Monitor serum creatinine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels when a patient is receiving furosemide because furosemide can cause potassium depletion. It is essential to monitor potassium levels to prevent complications such as hypokalemia. While monitoring urine output is important in assessing kidney function, and monitoring blood pressure and serum creatinine are relevant in certain situations, the priority when administering furosemide is to monitor potassium levels due to the medication's potential to deplete potassium.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory data of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider report?

• A. Serum calcium 8.5 mg/dL
• B. Blood glucose level 120 mg/dL
• C. Serum sodium 138 mEq/L
• D. Serum albumin 3.5 g/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum albumin 3.5 g/dL. A low serum albumin level indicates protein deficiency, which can be a complication of TPN therapy and requires prompt intervention. The other laboratory findings provided (serum calcium 8.5 mg/dL, blood glucose level 120 mg/dL, and serum sodium 138 mEq/L) are within normal ranges and do not specifically indicate complications related to TPN therapy.

Similar Questions