a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving radiation therapy for breast cancer which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam 2023

1. A client receiving radiation therapy for breast cancer may experience which of the following side effects that the nurse should monitor for?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During radiation therapy for breast cancer, one common side effect is skin irritation due to the impact of radiation on the skin cells. This side effect should be closely monitored by the nurse. Fatigue may also occur as a side effect of radiation therapy, but skin irritation is more specific to the treatment area and is a priority in this case. Nausea and weight gain are not typically associated with radiation therapy for breast cancer, making them incorrect choices.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of heart failure. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The corrected answer is A. Weighing daily is crucial for clients with heart failure to monitor fluid status since sudden weight gain can indicate fluid retention. Choice B is incorrect because excessive water intake can worsen fluid retention in heart failure. Choice C is incorrect as some physical activity is encouraged for heart failure clients, tailored to their condition. Choice D is incorrect as adjusting medication doses should always be done under healthcare provider guidance rather than self-administration.

3. A client is being assessed in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria is a sign of decreased cardiac output. Decreased cardiac output can lead to poor renal perfusion, resulting in decreased urine output (oliguria). This requires immediate intervention to improve cardiac function and perfusion. Shivering (Choice A) is a response to cold stress and does not directly indicate decreased cardiac output. Bradypnea (Choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is more indicative of respiratory issues rather than decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (Choice D) are associated with the parasympathetic nervous system response and not directly related to cardiac output.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Avoid crossing your legs when sitting.' After a total hip arthroplasty, it is important for clients to avoid crossing their legs to prevent complications such as dislocation. Crossing the legs can put strain on the new hip joint, increasing the risk of dislocation. Choice A is incorrect as crossing legs can be harmful. Choice B is incorrect as bending at the waist can strain the hip joint, leading to complications. Choice D is incorrect as using a raised toilet seat is recommended after hip surgery to prevent excessive bending at the hip joint.

5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hgb 10 g/dL. A hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL is below the normal range for a pregnant client, indicating possible anemia, which is crucial to report during pregnancy to prevent complications for both the mother and the baby. Platelets, WBC count, and BUN levels within the listed values are generally within normal ranges for a pregnant individual at 28 weeks of gestation. Platelets play a role in blood clotting, WBC count helps in fighting infections, and BUN measures kidney function, all of which are typically expected to be within normal limits during pregnancy.

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