Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving radiation therapy for breast cancer may experience which of the following side effects that the nurse should monitor for?

• A. Fatigue
• B. Nausea
• C. Skin irritation
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During radiation therapy for breast cancer, one common side effect is skin irritation due to the impact of radiation on the skin cells. This side effect should be closely monitored by the nurse. Fatigue may also occur as a side effect of radiation therapy, but skin irritation is more specific to the treatment area and is a priority in this case. Nausea and weight gain are not typically associated with radiation therapy for breast cancer, making them incorrect choices.

2. A client is receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours.
• B. Heart rate of 68/min.
• C. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L.
• D. Urine output of 60 mL/hr.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A heart rate of 68/min is lower than expected and should be reported as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Choices A, C, and D are within normal limits for a client receiving furosemide for heart failure and do not require immediate reporting. Weight loss may be expected due to diuretic therapy, a potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L is within the normal range, and a urine output of 60 mL/hr indicates adequate renal perfusion.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of the effectiveness of the treatment?

• A. Respiratory rate of 24/min
• B. White blood cell count of 15,000/mm3
• C. SpO2 of 95%
• D. Clear breath sounds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clear breath sounds are an essential indicator of effective pneumonia treatment as they suggest resolution of the lung infection. A normal respiratory rate (A) indicates adequate breathing but does not directly reflect the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment. An elevated white blood cell count (B) is a sign of infection and may not decrease immediately with treatment. While maintaining an SpO2 of 95% (C) is crucial for oxygenation, it may not directly indicate the effectiveness of pneumonia treatment.

4. A client has thrombocytopenia. What action should the nurse include?

• A. Encourage the client to floss daily.
• B. Remove fresh flowers from the client's room.
• C. Provide the client with a stool softener.
• D. Avoid serving raw vegetables.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse when caring for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide the client with a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is characterized by a low platelet count, leading to increased bleeding tendencies. Providing a stool softener helps prevent constipation, reducing the likelihood of straining during bowel movements and subsequent bleeding. Encouraging the client to floss daily (choice A) is unrelated to managing thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (choice B) pertains more to infection control than addressing thrombocytopenia. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (choice D) is not directly associated with managing thrombocytopenia symptoms.

5. Which medication is used to manage hyperthyroidism?

• A. Levothyroxine
• B. Methimazole
• C. Propylthiouracil
• D. Prednisone

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Methimazole is the correct answer. It is commonly used to manage hyperthyroidism by inhibiting the production of thyroid hormones. Levothyroxine (Choice A) is actually a medication used to treat hypothyroidism by supplementing thyroid hormones. Propylthiouracil (Choice C) is another anti-thyroid medication used in the management of hyperthyroidism. Prednisone (Choice D) is a corticosteroid and is not typically used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism.

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