a nurse is caring for a client who is 36 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery which of the following findings should the nurse report to th
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Nursing Elites

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ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 36 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Yellow wound drainage can indicate infection, especially 36 hours postoperative, and should be reported to the provider promptly. Serosanguineous drainage is a normal finding in the early stages of wound healing, and a heart rate of 92/min and a blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg are within normal ranges for a postoperative client. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting the yellow wound drainage as it may require immediate intervention.

2. A client is receiving morphine for pain management. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10/min indicates respiratory depression, a serious adverse effect of morphine that should be reported immediately. While a heart rate of 88/min, pain rating of 4, and a temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concern related to morphine administration.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving hemodialysis. Which action should the nurse include in the care plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the care plan for a client receiving hemodialysis is to check the vascular access site for bleeding after dialysis. This is crucial as it helps in detecting and addressing any bleeding complications that may arise from the dialysis procedure. Choice A is incorrect because medications should not be withheld unless specified by the healthcare provider. Choice B is incorrect as dextrose 5% in water is not typically used for orthostatic hypotension. Choice D is incorrect as giving an antibiotic before dialysis is not a routine practice unless specifically prescribed for a particular reason.

4. What is the most critical lab value to monitor for a patient on heparin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT levels. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, as it reflects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the patient is within the therapeutic range of heparin, minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Platelet count (choice B) is important to assess for potential heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary lab value to monitor during heparin therapy. INR levels (choice C) are monitored in patients on warfarin therapy, not heparin. Sodium levels (choice D) are not directly related to heparin therapy monitoring.

5. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to take the medication with meals. This helps prevent gastrointestinal upset and improves medication tolerance. Option A is incorrect because furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, so avoiding foods high in potassium is not necessary. Option B is incorrect as furosemide typically lowers blood pressure. Option C is incorrect because furosemide is a diuretic that promotes fluid loss rather than retention.

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