Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 minutes. After maintaining the client's airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

• A. Diazepam IV
• B. Lorazepam PO
• C. Diltiazem IV
• D. Clonazepam PO

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, where the client has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over an extended period, the priority is to administer a medication that can rapidly terminate the seizures. Diazepam is the medication of choice for status epilepticus due to its rapid onset of action within 10 minutes when administered intravenously. Lorazepam is also an option, but it is typically administered intravenously as well. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like hypertension and angina, not for seizures. Clonazepam, although used for seizures, is not the ideal choice in this acute situation due to its slower onset of action compared to benzodiazepines like diazepam and lorazepam.

2. A patient with a chest tube has continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. What does this indicate?

• A. An air leak
• B. A blocked chest tube
• C. Drainage from the site
• D. Blood clot in the chest tube

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicates an air leak. This situation requires immediate attention to prevent complications such as lung collapse. A blocked chest tube would typically result in absent or fluctuating bubbling. Drainage from the site would be observed in the collection chamber, not the water seal chamber. A blood clot in the chest tube would lead to cessation of drainage.

3. What are the manifestations of osteomyelitis?

• A. Localized pain, swelling, erythema
• B. Elevated white blood cells
• C. Elevated calcium levels
• D. Low potassium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Osteomyelitis often manifests as localized pain, swelling, and erythema due to infection in the bone. These symptoms are characteristic of inflammation and infection in the bone tissue. Elevated white blood cells (Choice B) may be present as part of the body's immune response to the infection but are not specific manifestations of osteomyelitis. Elevated calcium levels (Choice C) and low potassium levels (Choice D) are not typically associated with osteomyelitis.

4. What dietary teaching should be provided to a patient with GERD?

• A. Avoid mint and pepper
• B. Consume liquids with meals
• C. Increase fluid intake with meals
• D. Eat large meals before bed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct dietary teaching for a patient with GERD is to avoid mint and pepper. Mint and pepper can trigger reflux symptoms and increase gastric acid secretion, exacerbating GERD. Choices B and C are not recommended for patients with GERD as consuming liquids with meals and increasing fluid intake during meals can contribute to reflux by distending the stomach. Choice D, eating large meals before bed, can also worsen GERD symptoms by increasing pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter and promoting reflux.

5. What are the expected findings in a patient with hypokalemia?

• A. Cardiac dysrhythmias
• B. Seizures and confusion
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Muscle weakness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac dysrhythmias. Hypokalemia is commonly associated with cardiac dysrhythmias due to the role potassium plays in maintaining proper electrical conduction in the heart. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. While hypokalemia can lead to muscle weakness, the most critical and life-threatening manifestation is cardiac dysrhythmias. Seizures and confusion are more commonly associated with other electrolyte imbalances, such as hyponatremia. Bradycardia is not a typical finding in hypokalemia, as it tends to cause tachycardia or other arrhythmias.

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