ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 minutes. After maintaining the client's airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?
- A. Diazepam IV
- B. Lorazepam PO
- C. Diltiazem IV
- D. Clonazepam PO
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the scenario described, where the client has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over an extended period, the priority is to administer a medication that can rapidly terminate the seizures. Diazepam is the medication of choice for status epilepticus due to its rapid onset of action within 10 minutes when administered intravenously. Lorazepam is also an option, but it is typically administered intravenously as well. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like hypertension and angina, not for seizures. Clonazepam, although used for seizures, is not the ideal choice in this acute situation due to its slower onset of action compared to benzodiazepines like diazepam and lorazepam.
2. During an escharotomy on a patient with a burn injury, what is the purpose of this procedure?
- A. To release pressure and improve circulation in the affected area
- B. To remove dead tissue from the burn area
- C. To improve breathing by reducing skin tightness
- D. To prevent infection in the burned area
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Question: During an escharotomy on a patient with a burn injury, the purpose of this procedure is to release pressure and improve circulation in the affected area. This intervention is crucial in severe burns where the formation of eschar (dead tissue) can lead to increased pressure, compromising circulation and potentially causing further tissue damage. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because escharotomy specifically aims to address pressure and circulation issues in severe burn injuries, rather than removing dead tissue, improving breathing, or preventing infection.
3. What is the expected finding in a patient with compartment syndrome?
- A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
- B. Localized swelling and redness
- C. Numbness and tingling
- D. Fever and infection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with compartment syndrome, the expected finding includes unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. These are classic signs of compartment syndrome and indicate compromised blood flow and tissue perfusion, necessitating urgent intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because localized swelling and redness, numbness and tingling, as well as fever and infection, are not typical findings associated with compartment syndrome.
4. What are the manifestations of increased intracranial pressure (IICP)?
- A. Restlessness, confusion, irritability
- B. Severe nausea and vomiting
- C. Elevated blood pressure and bradycardia
- D. Decreased heart rate and altered pupil response
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct manifestations of increased intracranial pressure (IICP) include restlessness, confusion, and irritability. These symptoms are a result of the brain being under pressure inside the skull. Severe nausea and vomiting (Choice B) are more commonly associated with increased intracranial pressure in children. Elevated blood pressure and bradycardia (Choice C) are not typical manifestations of increased intracranial pressure; instead, hypertension and bradycardia may be seen in Cushing's reflex, which is a late sign of increased IICP. Decreased heart rate and altered pupil response (Choice D) are also not primary manifestations of increased intracranial pressure, although altered pupil response, like a non-reactive or dilated pupil, can be seen in some cases.
5. A nurse misreads a glucose reading and administers insulin for a blood glucose of 210 instead of 120. What should the nurse monitor the patient for?
- A. Monitor for hyperglycemia
- B. Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia
- C. Administer glucose IV
- D. Document the incident
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia. The nurse should monitor the patient for hypoglycemia due to the administration of excess insulin. Administering insulin for a blood glucose level of 210 instead of 120 can lead to a rapid drop in blood sugar levels, causing hypoglycemia. Option A is incorrect as hyperglycemia is high blood sugar, which is unlikely in this scenario. Option C is incorrect as administering glucose IV would worsen the hypoglycemia. Option D is not the immediate priority; patient safety and monitoring for adverse effects take precedence.
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