Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 minutes. After maintaining the client's airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

• A. Diazepam IV
• B. Lorazepam PO
• C. Diltiazem IV
• D. Clonazepam PO

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, where the client has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over an extended period, the priority is to administer a medication that can rapidly terminate the seizures. Diazepam is the medication of choice for status epilepticus due to its rapid onset of action within 10 minutes when administered intravenously. Lorazepam is also an option, but it is typically administered intravenously as well. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like hypertension and angina, not for seizures. Clonazepam, although used for seizures, is not the ideal choice in this acute situation due to its slower onset of action compared to benzodiazepines like diazepam and lorazepam.

2. A patient diagnosed with hypokalemia is at risk for which condition?

• A. Cardiac dysrhythmias
• B. Muscle weakness
• C. Seizures
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients diagnosed with hypokalemia are at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias due to low potassium levels. Hypokalemia can lead to abnormalities in the electrical conduction system of the heart, potentially causing irregular heart rhythms. Muscle weakness (Choice B) is a symptom commonly associated with hypokalemia, but the question asks about conditions the patient is at risk for, not specific symptoms. Seizures (Choice C) are not typically associated with hypokalemia; they are more commonly linked with conditions such as epilepsy. Bradycardia (Choice D) refers to a slow heart rate, which is not a typical risk associated with hypokalemia; instead, tachycardia (fast heart rate) is more commonly observed in patients with low potassium levels.

3. What is the priority dietary modification for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

• A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
• B. Increase potassium intake to 3 g/day
• C. Eat three large meals per day
• D. Restrict protein intake to 1 g/kg/day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. In patients with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease, restricting phosphorus intake is crucial to manage their condition. Excessive phosphorus can lead to mineral and bone disorders, which are common in kidney disease. Choice B, increasing potassium intake, is not the priority and can be harmful as kidney disease often leads to hyperkalemia. Choice C, eating three large meals per day, is not recommended as smaller, frequent meals are usually better tolerated. Choice D, restricting protein intake to 1 g/kg/day, is important in later stages of kidney disease but is not the priority at the pre-dialysis stage.

4. After a healthcare provider misreads a glucose level and administers insulin, what is the priority intervention?

• A. Monitor for hypoglycemia
• B. Administer glucose IV
• C. Document the incident
• D. Monitor for hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for hypoglycemia. Administering insulin based on a misread glucose level can lead to hypoglycemia. Monitoring for hypoglycemia is crucial as it is a potential adverse effect of the insulin administration. Administering glucose IV (Choice B) is not the priority as there is no indication of hypoglycemia yet. Documenting the incident (Choice C) is important but not the immediate priority over patient safety. Monitoring for hyperglycemia (Choice D) is not the priority after administering insulin in response to a misread glucose level.

5. A nurse is teaching a client about using a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device to treat obstructive sleep apnea. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. It delivers a preset amount of inspiratory pressure throughout the breathing cycle
• B. It has a continuous adjustment feature that changes the airway pressure throughout the cycle
• C. It delivers a preset amount of airway pressure throughout the breathing cycle
• D. It delivers positive pressure at the end of each breath

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a CPAP device delivers a preset amount of positive airway pressure continuously throughout all inspiration and expiration cycles. Choice A is incorrect because CPAP does not deliver inspiratory pressure at the beginning of each breath; it provides continuous positive pressure. Choice B is incorrect because CPAP typically delivers a constant pressure rather than having a feature that changes pressure throughout the cycle. Choice D is incorrect as CPAP does not deliver positive pressure specifically at the end of each breath; it maintains a consistent pressure throughout the breathing cycle.

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