a nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic clonic seizures over the course of 30 minutes after maintaining the clients ai
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 minutes. After maintaining the client's airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, where the client has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over an extended period, the priority is to administer a medication that can rapidly terminate the seizures. Diazepam is the medication of choice for status epilepticus due to its rapid onset of action within 10 minutes when administered intravenously. Lorazepam is also an option, but it is typically administered intravenously as well. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like hypertension and angina, not for seizures. Clonazepam, although used for seizures, is not the ideal choice in this acute situation due to its slower onset of action compared to benzodiazepines like diazepam and lorazepam.

2. What is the preferred electrical intervention for a patient with ventricular tachycardia with a pulse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Synchronized cardioversion is the preferred electrical intervention for ventricular tachycardia with a pulse. In this scenario, the heart still has an organized rhythm, so synchronized cardioversion is used to deliver a shock at a specific point in the cardiac cycle, aiming to restore a normal rhythm. Defibrillation (Choice A) is used for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Pacing (Choice C) may be used for bradycardias or certain types of heart blocks. Medication administration (Choice D) can be considered for stable ventricular tachycardia, but synchronized cardioversion is the primary intervention for ventricular tachycardia with a pulse.

3. What is a typical symptom of a hemorrhagic stroke in a patient?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A sudden, severe headache is a common symptom of a hemorrhagic stroke due to brain bleeding. This headache is often described as the worst headache of one's life. Gradual onset of numbness (choice B) is more characteristic of an ischemic stroke, where a blood clot blocks an artery in the brain. Loss of consciousness (choice C) can occur in severe cases of stroke but is not specific to hemorrhagic strokes. Loss of speech ability (choice D) is more associated with ischemic strokes affecting language centers of the brain.

4. What dietary recommendations should be provided to a patient with GERD?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with GERD is to avoid mint and spicy foods. These types of foods can trigger acid reflux and worsen GERD symptoms. Choice B is incorrect as eating large meals before bed can increase the likelihood of acid reflux due to increased pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter. Choice C is also incorrect as consuming liquids with meals can cause distension in the stomach, potentially leading to reflux. Choice D is not directly related to GERD, as foods high in potassium are generally healthy and not specifically problematic for GERD patients.

5. What does continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest tube indicates an air leak. This signifies that air is escaping from the patient's pleural space into the chest tube system rather than being evacuated properly. An air leak can lead to lung collapse or pneumothorax and requires immediate attention. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because continuous bubbling does not indicate normal chest tube function, drainage in the chest tube, or a blocked chest tube.

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