ATI RN
ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1
1. A nurse is teaching a group of clients about the risk factors for osteoporosis. Which of the following should the nurse include as a risk factor for osteoporosis?
- A. Early menopause
- B. History of falls
- C. African American race
- D. Obesity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Early menopause. A client who goes into early menopause, from natural or surgical causes, is at a greater risk for developing osteoporosis due to the rapid drop in estrogen levels. Choice B, history of falls, is not a direct risk factor for osteoporosis but rather a risk for fractures related to osteoporosis. Choice C, African American race, is actually associated with a lower risk of osteoporosis. Choice D, obesity, is considered a protective factor against osteoporosis as excess weight can provide additional support to bones.
2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is starting to take carbidopa/levodopa to treat Parkinson's disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. This medication can cause your urine to turn a dark color.
- B. Expect immediate relief after taking this medication.
- C. Take the medication with a high protein food.
- D. Skip a dose of the medication if you experience dizziness.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the teaching is that carbidopa/levodopa can cause the client's urine to turn a dark color, which is a harmless effect. It is crucial for the nurse to educate the client about this common side effect. Choice B is incorrect because immediate relief is not expected; therapeutic effects may take weeks to months. Choice C is incorrect as carbidopa/levodopa should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Choice D is incorrect as the client should not skip doses without consulting their healthcare provider, even if they experience dizziness.
3. What intervention is needed when continuous bubbling is seen in the chest tube water seal chamber?
- A. Tighten the connections of the chest tube system
- B. Clamp the chest tube
- C. Replace the chest tube
- D. Continue monitoring the chest tube
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber, the appropriate intervention is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. This action can help resolve an air leak, which is often the cause of continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. Clamping the chest tube (choice B) is not recommended as it can lead to a dangerous increase in pressure within the chest. Replacing the chest tube (choice C) is not the initial intervention unless there are other indications to do so. Simply monitoring the chest tube (choice D) without taking corrective action will not address the underlying issue of the air leak causing continuous bubbling.
4. What is the priority dietary modification for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?
- A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
- B. Increase potassium intake to 3 g/day
- C. Eat three large meals per day
- D. Restrict protein intake to 1 g/kg/day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. In patients with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease, restricting phosphorus intake is crucial to manage their condition. Excessive phosphorus can lead to mineral and bone disorders, which are common in kidney disease. Choice B, increasing potassium intake, is not the priority and can be harmful as kidney disease often leads to hyperkalemia. Choice C, eating three large meals per day, is not recommended as smaller, frequent meals are usually better tolerated. Choice D, restricting protein intake to 1 g/kg/day, is important in later stages of kidney disease but is not the priority at the pre-dialysis stage.
5. What is the preferred electrical intervention for a patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse?
- A. Synchronized cardioversion
- B. Defibrillation
- C. Medication administration
- D. Pacing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with ventricular tachycardia and a pulse, synchronized cardioversion is the preferred electrical intervention. Synchronized cardioversion is used to treat unstable tachyarrhythmias like ventricular tachycardia with a pulse. Choice B, defibrillation, is used for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. Choice C, medication administration, may not provide immediate correction for unstable ventricular tachycardia. Choice D, pacing, is not the first-line treatment for ventricular tachycardia with a pulse.
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