what are the common manifestations of a thrombotic stroke
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ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 2 Quizlet

1. What are the common manifestations of a thrombotic stroke?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gradual loss of function on one side of the body. A thrombotic stroke is characterized by a gradual onset of symptoms due to interrupted blood flow in the brain. This interruption results in manifestations such as weakness, numbness, or paralysis on one side of the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because sudden loss of consciousness, severe headache, confusion, seizures, and convulsions are more commonly associated with conditions other than thrombotic strokes.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 40/min. The client is diaphoretic and has chest pain. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Atropine. The client's presentation of bradycardia, diaphoresis, and chest pain indicates reduced cardiac output, requiring intervention to increase the heart rate. Atropine is used to treat bradycardia by blocking cardiac muscarinic receptors, thus inhibiting the parasympathetic nervous system. Lidocaine (Choice A) is used for ventricular arrhythmias, not bradycardia. Adenosine (Choice B) is used for supraventricular tachycardia, not bradycardia. Verapamil (Choice D) is a calcium channel blocker used for certain arrhythmias and hypertension, but not for increasing heart rate in bradycardia.

3. What is a characteristic sign of hypokalemia on an ECG?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are a characteristic sign of hypokalemia on an ECG. When potassium levels are low, it can lead to changes in the ECG, such as T wave flattening. This alteration is important to recognize as it indicates potential electrolyte imbalances. ST elevation (Choice B) is not typically associated with hypokalemia but can be seen in conditions like myocardial infarction. Prominent U waves (Choice C) are associated with hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are more specific. Widened QRS complex (Choice D) is not a typical ECG finding in hypokalemia but can be seen in conditions like hyperkalemia.

4. What are the dietary recommendations for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. High phosphorus levels can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as the kidneys may not be able to filter it effectively. While limiting sodium intake to 1,500 mg/day and restricting protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day are important in managing kidney disease, the primary concern for this patient population is to control phosphorus levels. Increasing protein intake is not recommended as it can put additional strain on the kidneys. Therefore, option A is the most appropriate recommendation in this scenario.

5. What is the primary concern for a patient with a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm³?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm³ indicates a severely immunocompromised state, leading to an increased risk of severe infection. In individuals with low CD4 counts, the immune system is significantly weakened, making them more susceptible to opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), bleeding (choice C), and dehydration (choice D) are not the primary concerns associated with a low CD4 T-cell count. While these conditions may occur as secondary effects or complications, the primary focus is on preventing and managing severe infections in patients with severely compromised immune systems.

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