Nursing Elites

1. What are the common manifestations of a thrombotic stroke?

• A. Gradual loss of function on one side of the body
• B. Sudden loss of consciousness
• C. Severe headache and confusion
• D. Seizures and convulsions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gradual loss of function on one side of the body. A thrombotic stroke is characterized by a gradual onset of symptoms due to interrupted blood flow in the brain. This interruption results in manifestations such as weakness, numbness, or paralysis on one side of the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because sudden loss of consciousness, severe headache, confusion, seizures, and convulsions are more commonly associated with conditions other than thrombotic strokes.

2. A client has a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA). What should the nurse teach?

• A. Avoid eating within 3 hours of bedtime
• B. Consume liquids between meals
• C. Eat large meals to increase caloric intake
• D. Avoid liquids to prevent aspiration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid eating within 3 hours of bedtime. For a client with a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA), it is crucial to avoid eating within 3 hours of bedtime to reduce reflux that can worsen symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because consuming liquids between meals is not specifically related to managing TIA. Choice C is incorrect as eating large meals may not be recommended, especially if the client needs to watch their caloric intake. Choice D is incorrect because avoiding liquids entirely can lead to dehydration and is not a standard recommendation for TIA management.

3. What lab value should be prioritized in a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
• B. Hemoglobin levels
• C. Serum albumin levels
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. In a patient with HIV, monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial as it reflects the status of the immune system. A CD4 T-cell count below 200 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and risk of opportunistic infections. Hemoglobin levels (choice B) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect the immune status in HIV patients. Serum albumin levels (choice C) are indicators of nutritional status and inflammation, not specific to HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice D) may fluctuate due to various conditions and is not as specific as the CD4 T-cell count in assessing HIV progression.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing a client for a colonoscopy. Which of the following medications should the professional anticipate the provider to prescribe as an anesthetic for the procedure?

• A. Propofol
• B. Pancuronium
• C. Promethazine
• D. Pentoxifylline

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Propofol. Propofol is a short-acting anesthetic medication commonly used for procedures like colonoscopies to induce moderate sedation. Pancuronium (Choice B) is a neuromuscular blocking agent used as a paralyzing agent during surgery, not for sedation. Promethazine (Choice C) is an antihistamine often used for nausea and vomiting, not as an anesthetic. Pentoxifylline (Choice D) is a medication used to improve blood flow and is not indicated for anesthesia.

5. What is the initial action for treating chest pain in acute coronary syndrome?

• A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
• B. Administer aspirin
• C. Check cardiac enzymes
• D. Obtain IV access

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct initial action for treating chest pain in acute coronary syndrome is to administer sublingual nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels, reducing the workload on the heart and improving blood flow to the heart muscle. Administering aspirin can also be beneficial, but the priority is to address chest pain promptly. Checking cardiac enzymes and obtaining IV access are important steps but are not the initial actions needed to alleviate chest pain in acute coronary syndrome.

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